Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The patient presents with classic symptoms of schizophrenia: delusions, hallucinations, social withdrawal, and disorganized appearance. The first-line treatment is antipsychotic medication—risperidone is a well-tolerated option among second-generation antipsychotics.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Schizophrenia”:

“Schizophrenia is treated with second-generation antipsychotics such as risperidone. These reduce positive symptoms like delusions and hallucinations.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Psychotic Disorders):

“Candidates must recognize and manage schizophrenia with antipsychotics and distinguish from other mood or personality disorders.”

CBT (E) is supportive but not first-line. ECT (A) is used for severe depression or catatonia. Valproic acid (C) and carbamazepine (D) are mood stabilizers, not first-line for schizophrenia.

—

Radiation proctitis is a well-known complication of pelvic radiation therapy (e.g., for prostate cancer). It presents months to years after treatment with rectal bleeding, tenesmus, and mucosal ulceration on colonoscopy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gastroenterology, “Radiation-Induced GI Injury”:

“Radiation proctitis presents with rectal bleeding, tenesmus, urgency. Colonoscopy shows pale, friable mucosa, ulcerations, and telangiectasia.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gastroenterology > 47-2: GI Bleeding and Complications):

“Candidates must recognize radiation proctitis based on history of radiation and characteristic endoscopic findings.”

Ulcerative colitis (B) usually starts younger and is more diffuse. Diverticulosis (C) affects the left colon and causes painless bleeding. Recurrent prostate cancer (D) and rectal cancer (E) would show mass or infiltration.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Patients undergoing splenectomy are at lifelong risk for overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), particularly from encapsulated organisms. Vaccination against Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and Neisseria meningitidis is recommended at least 2 weeks prior to elective splenectomy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Hematology / Surgery:

“Patients undergoing elective splenectomy should receive vaccines against pneumococcus, H. influenzae type b, and meningococcus at least 2 weeks before surgery.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Hematology > 38-2: Thrombocytopenia and Splenectomy):

“Candidates must ensure vaccination prior to splenectomy to prevent postsplenectomy sepsis.”

Calcium (B) may be considered in chronic steroid users but is not the priority. Azithromycin (C) is not indicated. D is unsafe without tapering. E is only for acute bleeding or extremely low platelets.

—

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

While borderline personality disorder is challenging, symptoms (particularly impulsivity and suicidal behaviors) often attenuate with age and appropriate therapy (e.g., dialectical behavior therapy). Providing hope and clinical context to staff improves care and reduces stigma.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Personality Disorders”:

“BPD is associated with emotional dysregulation and impulsivity. Long-term prognosis is better than once believed, with many patients showing symptom remission over time.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-4: Personality Disorders):

“Candidates must provide appropriate education to patients and staff regarding prognosis and treatment of BPD.”

Statements A–D are false, stigmatizing, or dangerous.

Given the lack of prenatal care, the mother's withdrawal, and prior involvement of child protection services, a newborn drug screen is warranted to assess for possible in utero exposure. This is part of the safety assessment.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Newborn Assessment:

“Infants born to mothers with no prenatal care or prior social concerns should undergo a full newborn screening, including toxicology if indicated.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Newborn Care and Social Issues:

“Candidates must identify social risk factors and initiate appropriate newborn evaluations, including toxicology screens when substance use is suspected.”

The mother was previously immune to hepatitis B, so (A) is not immediately required. Skin-to-skin care (D) is beneficial but secondary to screening in this context. Donor milk (B) is not indicated unless breastfeeding is contraindicated.

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Wernicke encephalopathy is a medical emergency caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, most often seen in chronic alcohol use. The classic triad is:

Confusion

Oculomotor dysfunction (e.g., nystagmus, cranial nerve palsies)

Ataxia

Toronto Notes 2023 – Neurology and Psychiatry, “Wernicke Encephalopathy” Section:

“Wernicke encephalopathy is diagnosed clinically. Symptoms include ophthalmoplegia (e.g., CN VI palsy), horizontal nystagmus, ataxia, and confusion. Immediate parenteral thiamine is indicated before glucose administration.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Neurology > 75-1: Neurologic Emergencies):

“Candidates must recognize Wernicke encephalopathy in at-risk individuals and initiate urgent thiamine replacement.”

Other choices like cerebellar degeneration (A) and hepatic encephalopathy (D) are more chronic and lack the characteristic eye findings. Subdural hematoma (B) and hemorrhage (E) may mimic confusion but are less likely with these neurologic signs and history.

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Postoperative fever on day 1–2 is commonly caused by atelectasis, particularly in patients who are immobile. It is considered a self-limited cause of early fever after surgery and often resolves with mobilization and pulmonary exercises.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Surgery, Postoperative Complications:

“The ‘5 W’s’ of postoperative fever: Wind (atelectasis), Water (UTI), Wound (infection), Walking (DVT), and Wonder drugs. Atelectasis typically occurs in the first 48 hours and is due to hypoventilation or pain-limited breathing.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Surgery > Postoperative Management:

“Candidates must recognize timing-specific causes of postoperative fever. Atelectasis is the most likely cause within the first 48 hours.”

PE (B) can cause fever but is less likely without respiratory compromise. Wound infection (C) and bowel trauma (D) typically present later or with more specific symptoms. Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis (A) usually presents later and with more systemic signs.

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The patient presents with an acutely inflamed joint and fever, raising concern for septic arthritis. A history of gout does not exclude infection. The first and most urgent step in any monoarthritis with systemic signs (fever) is joint aspiration to assess for crystals, white cells, and organisms.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Rheumatology, “Monoarthritis”:

“Always rule out septic arthritis in a hot, swollen joint, especially when fever is present. Joint aspiration is essential to differentiate infection from crystal arthropathy.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Rheumatology > 49-1):

“Candidates must identify red flags for septic arthritis and understand that arthrocentesis is the first step in diagnosis and management.”

Initiating NSAIDs or acetaminophen without diagnosis (C, D) can delay appropriate care. Radiographs (B) do not help differentiate gout from infection acutely. Blood cultures (E) may help, but aspiration is more diagnostic.

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Patient education is foundational in managing fibromyalgia. Understanding the chronic but non-progressive nature of the disease, reassurance, and emphasis on self-management are crucial. It helps set realistic expectations and enhances engagement in therapy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Rheumatology, Fibromyalgia:

“Patient education is essential. Explain the nature of fibromyalgia, emphasizing that although it is chronic, it is non-deforming and can be managed through exercise, sleep hygiene, and cognitive strategies.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry & Rheumatology > Chronic Pain Syndromes:

“Candidates must recognize the value of education and behavioral interventions in managing functional syndromes.”

SSRIs (D) may be used if depression is present. Iron/B12 (B) are not indicated without evidence of deficiency. Cannabinoids (A) lack strong evidence in fibromyalgia.

Fibrocystic change is the most common benign breast condition in women of reproductive age. It typically presents with diffuse nodularity or "lumpy" areas, especially in the upper outer quadrant, and varies with the menstrual cycle. No dominant mass or systemic signs are expected.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Benign Breast Conditions”:

“Fibrocystic changes often present with bilateral or unilateral nodularity, most commonly in the upper outer quadrants, without discrete masses.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 81-1: Breast Conditions):

“Candidates must differentiate benign breast conditions from malignant ones based on presentation and physical exam findings.”

Paget disease (B) presents with nipple changes. Intraductal carcinoma (C) typically shows a discrete mass or suspicious features. Phyllodes tumours are usually well-circumscribed. Mastitis (E) is inflammatory and associated with erythema, fever, and tenderness.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (LNG-IUD) is generally contraindicated in current or recent breast cancer due to the progestin component, but may be considered in selectpatients on tamoxifen, especially if non-hormonal options are unsuitable. Consultation with the oncologist is required to evaluate risks and benefits.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Contraception in Special Populations”:

“Levonorgestrel IUDs are generally avoided in patients with a history of hormone-sensitive cancers; however, decisions should be made collaboratively with oncology.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-2: Contraception):

“Candidates must tailor contraceptive advice to patients with medical comorbidities, including cancer survivors.”

Irregular bleeding (A) is a common but not contraindicating side effect. No pre-procedure antibiotics (D) are typically needed. The IUD does not cause infertility (E). Risk of recurrence (C) is unconfirmed and must be individualized.

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When encountering vaccine hesitancy, the first and most effective step is to open a non-judgmental conversation and explore the patient’s reasons. This helps build trust and tailor subsequent education and counseling.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Public Health and Preventive Medicine, Immunization:

“Addressing vaccine hesitancy requires understanding parental concerns. Begin with open-ended questions to identify underlying beliefs and information gaps.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Preventive Medicine > Immunization:

“Candidates must demonstrate effective communication with vaccine-hesitant parents, beginning with eliciting their rationale before providing evidence-based recommendations.”

Jumping to education (B) or punitive measures (C, D) may close communication. The patient is an adult; speaking with her parents (E) violates her autonomy.

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This ABG reveals primary respiratory acidosis (↓pH, ↑PaCO₂, normal HCO₃), likely from hypoventilation due to postoperative pain, sedation, or narcotics. PaO₂ is also low, suggesting inadequate oxygenation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Respiratory, “Postoperative Respiratory Complications”:

“Postoperative respiratory acidosis results from hypoventilation, often due to pain, sedatives, or poor respiratory effort. Assess airway, breathing, and support oxygenation.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 44-3: Acid-Base Disturbances):

“Candidates must recognize respiratory acidosis on ABG and relate findings to common postoperative complications.”

Metabolic acidosis (C) would show ↓HCO₃. Compensated alkalosis (D) would show opposite ABG changes. Hypermetabolic states increase respiratory drive, not decrease it.

This patient has a family history of both male breast cancer (father) and early-onset ovarian cancer (aunt), which are red flags for BRCA1/2 mutations. Genetic counseling and BRCA testing are the appropriate next steps to stratify cancer risk and guide screening and prevention.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Oncology, “Breast Cancer Risk” Section:

“BRCA testing is recommended for individuals with a strong family history of breast or ovarian cancer, particularly if involving male relatives or early-onset cases.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-5: Screening and Prevention):

“Candidates must identify high-risk individuals who require genetic counseling and screening beyond population guidelines.”

Tamoxifen (A) and prophylactic mastectomy (E) are only considered after confirming mutation status. Annual screening starting at 50 (D) is for average-risk women. Fine-needle sampling (C) is not a screening tool.

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The first step in any MAID request is to explore the patient's motivations, psychosocial concerns, and mental health status. The request should be taken seriously and approached with compassion. Exploring the reasons is essential to determine eligibility and to distinguish suffering from other potentially treatable issues (e.g., depression, loss of hope).

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, "Medical Assistance in Dying":

“Upon receiving a request for MAID, the physician must first explore the patient’s motivations, ensure understanding of their condition, and assess for coercion, depression, or other treatable factors.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Ethical Dilemmas > End-of-Life Care):

“Candidates must demonstrate understanding of the ethical and legal framework surrounding MAID and respond appropriately to requests by exploring reasons and providing necessary support and referrals.”

MAID is available to mature minors in some jurisdictions but not uniformly. Assuming the patient is ineligible or redirecting to other treatments without discussion is inappropriate.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient likely has treatment-resistant obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), with classicsymptoms of rumination, excessive guilt, and fear of causing harm. Clomipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant with strong serotonergic activity, is effective in treatment-resistant OCD and is often used after failure of multiple SSRIs or SNRIs.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, OCD:

“Clomipramine is a first-line tricyclic antidepressant for OCD, particularly after failed SSRI/SNRI trials. It is effective due to potent serotonergic action.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > OCD and Anxiety Disorders:

“Candidates must identify treatment strategies for resistant OCD, including the role of clomipramine and augmentation therapy.”

Quetiapine (C) may be used as augmentation. Paroxetine (E) is another SSRI. Vortioxetine (A) and amitriptyline (D) are not first-line or preferred for OCD.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

During mass casualty incidents, effective triage is essential to optimize care delivery. A trained physician is best used in triage or direct care. Triage is the foundation of disaster management.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Public Health / Disaster Medicine:

“In disaster response, trained healthcare providers should be deployed to triage and stabilize patients in emergency departments.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Public Health > 65-1: Disaster Response):

“Candidates must understand principles of mass casualty management and assign appropriate roles during triage and care delivery.”

Media (D) and logistics (A, C) are secondary roles. Triage and direct care take priority.

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Calculating food-specific attack rates (i.e., number of people who became ill after eating aparticular food divided by the total number who ate that food) is the most effective method to identify the probable source of infection in a known cohort outbreak.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Public Health, Outbreak Investigations:

“Foodborne outbreaks are best analyzed using food-specific attack rates to determine associations between individual foods and illness.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Preventive Medicine > Epidemiologic Principles:

“Candidates must use epidemiologic tools, such as attack rates, to identify probable sources during outbreak investigations.”

Cohort study (C) is also acceptable but more time-intensive. Stool and food cultures (B, D) confirm the pathogen but not the source. HACCP (E) is a preventive method, not a tool for outbreak investigation.

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The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) is the first-line treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding, particularly in women with risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia and contraindications to systemic hormones (e.g., morbid obesity, diabetes, OSA).

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Abnormal Uterine Bleeding” Section:

“The LNG-IUS is highly effective in reducing menstrual bleeding and improving hemoglobin levels. It is particularly recommended in women with obesity, chronic anovulation, or contraindications to estrogen.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-1: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding):

“Candidates must consider the LNG-IUS as a preferred non-surgical treatment for chronic heavy menstrual bleeding when endometrial pathology has been excluded.”

Oral contraceptives (C) are not first-line in morbid obesity due to increased thromboembolic risk. Cyclic medroxyprogesterone (D) is less effective than LNG-IUS. Hysterectomy (A) is definitive but should follow failure of conservative therapy.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Travel to rural Cambodia poses a high risk of malaria, which can be life-threatening in pregnancy. Antimalarial prophylaxis is strongly recommended for pregnant women traveling to endemic regions. Chloroquine or mefloquine (depending on resistance patterns) may be used in pregnancy under specialist guidance.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Infectious Disease / Travel Medicine:

“Malaria prophylaxis is indicated in pregnant women traveling to endemic regions. The risk of severe malaria and poor fetal outcomes is high.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Public Health > 65-3: Travel Medicine and Pregnancy):

“Candidates must provide preventive care to pregnant travelers including vaccination and malaria prophylaxis.”

Tetanus boosters (D) are given every 10 years. Hep B Ig (B) is for acute post-exposure prophylaxis. Ciprofloxacin (C) is contraindicated in pregnancy.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient has end-stage heart failure with frequent hospitalizations, progressive symptoms, and functional decline. The most appropriate next step is to initiate a goals-of-care conversation, including acknowledgment of the prognosis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Cardiology / Palliative Care:

“In advanced heart failure with recurrent admissions and functional decline, a goals-of-care discussion should be initiated to align treatment with patient values.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Cardiology > 34-4 / ELOM > 90-2):

“Candidates must recognize end-stage illness and provide appropriate communication and palliative care planning.”

Deactivating the defibrillator (B) may be appropriate later but should follow a goals-of-care conversation. Reassuring (C) ignores the true clinical trajectory.

The classic description of brief, severe unilateral periorbital pain with autonomic symptoms (tearing), occurring in clusters (same time daily for weeks), is diagnostic of cluster headache.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Neurology, “Headaches”:

“Cluster headaches: severe unilateral periorbital pain, often with lacrimation, nasal congestion, occurring in clusters over weeks. More common in young males.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 35-2: Headache Disorders):

“Candidates must distinguish among headache types based on duration, pattern, and associated symptoms.”

Migraine tends to last hours and has nausea or photophobia. Sinusitis causes dull, pressure-like pain. Tumour-related headache is progressive and worse with Valsalva. Post-concussive headache would have trauma history.

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Persistent postmenopausal bleeding requires thorough evaluation. An inadequate endometrial biopsy result does not rule out pathology. Hysteroscopy allows for direct visualization and targeted biopsy and is the gold standard when biopsy is non-diagnostic.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Abnormal Uterine Bleeding and Endometrial Cancer” Section:

“Persistent bleeding with insufficient biopsy requires further evaluation, preferably via hysteroscopy and directed biopsy. This is especially important in patients on HRT or with risk factors for endometrial pathology.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics & Gynecology > 82-9: Postmenopausal Bleeding):

“Candidates must investigate abnormal bleeding in postmenopausal women with hysteroscopy when endometrial sampling is non-diagnostic.”

Changing hormones (A), reducing progestin (E), or performing colposcopy (C) are not appropriate without confirming the cause of bleeding.

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In situations involving potential oversight, the appropriate next step is to contact the other physician directly. This supports collegial communication, continuity of care, and provides an opportunity to clarify the clinical situation. It avoids premature judgment while allowing the primary provider to respond and address concerns.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, “Professionalism and Interprofessional Communication”:

“When concerns arise about another provider’s care, direct communication is preferred before considering formal reporting. This maintains collaboration and fairness.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-2: Communication and Accountability):

“Candidates must demonstrate collegiality and appropriate methods for addressing concerns regarding another physician’s care.”

Empathizing (D) and validating blame is unprofessional. Reporting (B) is premature. Offering another provider (C) could undermine continuity. (E) is incorrect since the glucose should have been checked based on the presenting symptoms.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient presents with the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH): gait disturbance (often wide-based and magnetic), cognitive decline, and urinary incontinence. The combination, especially with the gait being most prominent, is highly suggestive.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Geriatrics / Neurology:

“NPH presents with gait disturbance, dementia, and urinary incontinence. Gait is typically broad-based and magnetic. Imaging shows ventriculomegaly without elevated pressure.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Disorders):

“Candidates must identify NPH and distinguish it from other dementias based on clinical triad and gait features.”

Alzheimer’s (B) primarily presents with memory loss. Parkinson’s (A) has bradykinesia and rigidity. Lewy body dementia (C) includes visual hallucinations and fluctuating cognition. FTD (E) has personality and behavioral changes.

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Anaphylaxis requires immediate administration of epinephrine via the intramuscular (IM) route, typically in the lateral thigh. This route provides the fastest and most reliable absorption for emergency treatment.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Anaphylaxis:

“Epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg IM is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. The intramuscular route provides the most rapid and safe absorption in emergencies.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Allergy and Immunology:

“Candidates must know the emergency management of anaphylaxis, including proper dosage and intramuscular administration of epinephrine.”

IV administration (A) is reserved for critical care settings. Subcutaneous (C) and intranasal/inhaled routes (D, E) are ineffective in anaphylaxis.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The most appropriate next step is to assess the patient’s capacity to consent to or refuse treatment. Patients with severe anorexia nervosa may lack decision-making capacity due todistorted thinking and perception, particularly if refusal of treatment is life-threatening. If she is found incapable, treatment can proceed in her best interests.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry / Ethics:

“If a patient with anorexia nervosa refuses treatment but is medically unstable, assess capacity. If incapable, substitute decision-making may be initiated.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-4: Informed Consent and Capacity):

“Candidates must assess decision-making capacity when a patient refuses essential care, especially in life-threatening psychiatric or medical conditions.”

Psychiatric consult (B) may follow, but the immediate action is capacity assessment. D is premature without determining capacity. A and E are also premature or inappropriate.

—

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Epidural analgesia is associated with increased maternal intrapartum fever due to non-infectious(neurogenic) thermoregulation impairment. This is a well-known phenomenon in laboring women.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics / Anesthesia:

“Epidural analgesia increases risk of intrapartum fever by up to 20% via non-infectious mechanisms.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-5: Intrapartum Care):

“Candidates must recognize risk factors for intrapartum complications, including effects of epidural use.”

Multiparity (A), precipitous labor (B), and maternal age (C) are not established risk factors for intrapartum fever.

This constellation of features—hypotonia, macroglossia, brachycephaly, single palmar crease, short broad hands with clinodactyly—is classic for Down syndrome (Trisomy 21).

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Genetic Syndromes”:

“Trisomy 21 features include hypotonia, upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, flat nasal bridge, brachycephaly, macroglossia, single palmar crease, and clinodactyly.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-3: Congenital and Genetic Disorders):

“Candidates must recognize key dysmorphic features associated with common genetic syndromes including Trisomy 21.”

Prader-Willi and congenital hypothyroidism may have hypotonia but lack the full phenotypic pattern. Turner syndrome is seen in females with short stature and webbed neck. Fetal alcohol syndrome presents with smooth philtrum and microcephaly.

—

In adolescents presenting with vague or potentially sensitive symptoms, it is critical to speak with them alone to obtain a complete and honest history, including mental health, sexual activity, substance use, and abuse screening.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Adolescent Medicine:

“Private interviews are essential to obtain accurate histories in adolescents, especially when symptoms may have underlying psychosocial or reproductive causes.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Adolescent Health:

“Candidates must demonstrate adolescent-appropriate interviewing techniques, including private questioning to identify sensitive or risk-related concerns.”

Physical examination and pregnancy testing (A, B, D) may follow based on the private history. Vital signs (E) are standard but do not replace psychosocial assessment.

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Clozapine and quetiapine are associated with significant weight gain and increased risk of type 2 diabetes. With a BMI of 32 and weight gain over the past year, screening for diabetes is appropriate and evidence-based.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Endocrinology, Diabetes & Psychiatry Sections:

“Second-generation antipsychotics such as clozapine increase the risk of metabolic syndrome and type 2 diabetes. Regular screening is recommended for patients with these risk factors.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:

“Candidates should screen high-risk individuals, especially those on antipsychotics with weight gain, for diabetes using fasting glucose or HbA1c.”

While sleep apnea (C) is also possible, diabetes screening is the most appropriate and urgent next step in this patient. COPD (A) would present with respiratory symptoms. Cushing’s (B) and acromegaly (E) are less common and have other distinct features.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient has hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH, ruling out primary hyperparathyroidism. The differential includes malignancy-associated hypercalcemia, vitamin D intoxication, and medications. Given the low PTH and normal vitamin D level, malignancy (e.g., multiple myeloma) is a leading concern. Serum protein electrophoresis and urine for Bence-Jones proteins (light chains) are appropriate next steps.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Endocrinology, “Hypercalcemia”:

“PTH-independent hypercalcemia should prompt investigation for malignancy. Multiple myeloma is a common cause in older adults—order SPEP and UPEP.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Endocrinology > 37-1: Calcium Disorders):

“Candidates must investigate non-PTH mediated hypercalcemia, including consideration of multiple myeloma.”

A (urine calcium) helps in familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia, but this is unlikely given low PTH. B (calcitriol) would worsen hypercalcemia. C is inappropriate because PTH is suppressed. D (changing HCTZ) may help, but malignancy must be ruled out first.

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The patient demonstrates signs of asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL). In Weber test, sound localizes to the better ear in SNHL. Air conduction > bone conduction on Rinne test bilaterally supports SNHL. Audiometry is the best next diagnostic step to quantify and characterize the hearing loss.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ENT, "Hearing Loss":

“Audiometry is the first-line investigation to distinguish conductive from sensorineural hearing loss and to assess severity and frequency involvement.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > ENT > 20-1):

“Candidates must know the approach to hearing loss and interpret Weber and Rinne tests to guide investigations such as audiometry.”

Imaging (A, C) is reserved for red flags such as unilateral persistent SNHL, which may later prompt MRI to rule out acoustic neuroma. Wax removal (D) is for conductive loss. Hearing aids (E) are management, not diagnostic, and come after audiologic evaluation.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective first-line treatment for somatic symptom disorder. It helps patients reframe dysfunctional thoughts and improve coping strategies for perceived physical symptoms.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders”:

“CBT is first-line for somatic symptom disorder. Antidepressants may be considered if comorbid depression or anxiety is present.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-2: Somatic Symptom Disorders):

“Candidates must manage somatic symptom disorder with appropriate psychosocial interventions.”

Citalopram (B) or amitriptyline (E) may be used adjunctively if mood symptoms are prominent. Risperidone (C) and ERP (D) are not indicated.

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In pediatric trauma, inability to void with perineal bruising raises concern for urethral injury or urinary retention due to soft tissue swelling. The most immediate step is to attempt bladder catheterization. If unsuccessful, consult gynecology or urology urgently to avoid bladder overdistension.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Genitourinary Trauma:

“In females, perineal trauma can lead to urinary retention due to labial hematomas or urethral injury. If catheterization is difficult, consult gynecology or urology for assistance.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Trauma and Emergency Care:

“Candidates must recognize when specialist consultation is required in pediatric genitourinary trauma, especially in cases of failed catheterization.”

Options B and D delay necessary care. Coagulation studies (C) may be considered if bleeding is unexplained. Abuse assessment (E) may be necessary later but does not address immediate retention.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient is pregnant and febrile with a new headache, photophobia, and clonus — all features concerning for preeclampsia with neurologic involvement. Clonus is a key finding suggestive of central nervous system irritability. Urine protein/creatinine ratio helps confirm the diagnosis of preeclampsia.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics, Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy:

“Headache, clonus, and visual disturbances are concerning for severe preeclampsia. A urine protein/creatinine ratio or 24-hour urine collection confirms diagnosis.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Obstetrics > Hypertension in Pregnancy:

“Candidates must recognize signs of preeclampsia and assess with appropriate biochemical testing.”

CT (A) or LP (B) are not indicated unless focal neurologic signs or seizures are present. Fetal imaging and amniocentesis (C, D) do not address maternal symptoms.

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This patient exhibits classic symptoms of a major depressive episode (MDE): anhedonia, low mood, social withdrawal, feelings of worthlessness, hypersomnia, and loss of appetite. These symptoms are persistent and pervasive beyond what is typical in grief.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Depressive Disorders” Section:

“MDE is characterized by ≥5 symptoms present nearly every day for ≥2 weeks including low mood, anhedonia, sleep/appetite disturbances, low energy, feelings of worthlessness, and suicidal ideation. It must cause significant impairment in functioning.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-1: Mood Disorders):

“Candidates must distinguish between grief, adjustment disorders, and major depression in patients with chronic illness and initiate appropriate management.”

Normal grief (A) may involve sadness and crying but does not involve pervasive hopelessness or worthlessness. Side effects of chemotherapy (C) and hepatic encephalopathy (E) have other specific physical signs. Brain metastasis (D) would more likely present with focal neurologic symptoms or cognitive impairment.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

For small renal masses (<4 cm), partial nephrectomy (nephron-sparing surgery) is the standard of care in patients who are surgical candidates. It preserves renal function and provides oncologic control.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Urology / Oncology:

“Small renal tumors <4 cm should be treated with partial nephrectomy. Active surveillance or ablation may be alternatives in poor surgical candidates.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Urology > 59-2: Renal Masses):

“Candidates must manage small renal tumors with nephron-sparing surgery when feasible.”

MRI (A) is unnecessary after CT confirmation. Radiation (B) is not first-line. Surveillance (D) may be appropriate for elderly or frail patients, not this one. Ablation (E) is for high-risk surgical patients.

—

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

An advance directive is a legally binding document that outlines a competent person's preferences regarding future medical care. If the patient clearly stated a refusal of treatment in the event of a life-threatening condition, this directive must be followed, even if the patient is currently incapacitated and family disagrees.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Ethics and Law:

“Advance directives must be respected when valid, clear, and applicable. Substitute decision-makers cannot override them.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-4: Informed Consent and Advance Directives):

“Candidates must apply valid advance directives to guide care for incapacitated patients.”

B (parents as SDMs) is incorrect if an advance directive exists. A and D are irrelevant—capacity has already been documented. C is unnecessary when an advance directive is clear.

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This patient has clinical signs of an eating disorder — fatigue, low BMI, hypotension, and hypokalemia — likely secondary to nutritional deficiencies or purging. The first step is to sensitively explore the patient's perception of weight and body image. Effective management requires rapport and careful conversation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Eating Disorders:

“Approach patients with suspected eating disorders non-judgmentally. Begin with permission to discuss weight or body image. Screening tools like SCOFF can help guide further assessment.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Eating Disorders:

“Candidates must recognize signs of eating disorders and initiate a respectful and effective patient-centered discussion.”

Referring to the ED (B) is not urgent without hemodynamic instability. Advising caloric intake (C) bypasses assessment. GI referral (D) is not appropriate at this stage.

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The highest priority is the immediate safety of the patient and her child. In the presence of domestic violence, risk assessment for harm or neglect must be conducted urgently, particularly since a child may be at risk. Safety trumps psychiatric or social evaluations in triage.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Crisis and Risk Assessment” Section:

“When intimate partner violence (IPV) is disclosed, it is critical to assess immediate safety and consider mandatory reporting, especially when children are involved.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-6: Violence and Abuse):

“Candidates must assess for and respond to risk of harm in situations of domestic violence, especially when dependents are involved. This includes ensuring immediate safety and following legal obligations for child protection.”

Although the other concerns (e.g., gambling, depression, substance use, financial need) are valid, the presence of violence makes D the first and most urgent priority.

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Visible rectal bleeding, even in the absence of systemic symptoms, warrants diagnostic colonoscopy to rule out colorectal cancer, polyps, or IBD—especially in adults over 40. FIT is for asymptomatic screening only.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gastroenterology, “Approach to Lower GI Bleeding”:

“In patients with overt rectal bleeding, colonoscopy is the investigation of choice regardless of age or FIT status.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Gastroenterology > 47-1):

“Candidates must evaluate rectal bleeding with colonoscopy, even in the presence of minor findings on physical exam (e.g., skin tag).”

FIT (A) is not appropriate for symptomatic patients. CEA (D) is a tumor marker for surveillance, not diagnosis. CT colonography (C) is less sensitive for lesions than colonoscopy.

Magnesium sulfate toxicity is dose-dependent. The earliest and most sensitive clinical sign is theloss of deep tendon reflexes (especially patellar), which occurs before respiratory depression or cardiac changes.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics Chapter:

“Toxicity from magnesium sulfate is progressive and typically presents first with loss of deep tendon reflexes. Respiratory depression and cardiac arrest occur at higher serum levels. Regular monitoring of reflexes, respiratory rate, and urine output is essential.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 83-3: Preterm Labour and Tocolysis):

“The candidate must recognize early signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity including areflexia and respiratory depression.”

Tachycardia (B), hypotension (C), and tachypnea (D) are not typical early signs. Oliguria (E) may be a risk factor for accumulation but is not the first sign of toxicity.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Rapid progression of pain out of proportion to exam, systemic symptoms (anxiety), and skinchanges without major swelling are classic for necrotizing fasciitis—a surgical emergency. Discoloration and extreme tenderness should raise immediate concern.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Emergency Medicine / Surgery:

“Necrotizing fasciitis presents with severe pain, systemic toxicity, rapid progression, and early skin changes (discoloration). Pain out of proportion is a key clue.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Emergency Medicine > 51-1: Soft Tissue Infections):

“Candidates must recognize necrotizing fasciitis and initiate urgent surgical consultation.”

Plantaris rupture (A) is benign and localized. DVT (B) is more gradual and often with swelling. Cellulitis (C) progresses more slowly and is less painful. Baker’s cyst (D) causes posterior knee pain, not severe systemic illness.

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The presentation is highly suspicious for acute aortic dissection — sudden chest/back pain and mediastinal widening on chest x-ray. The most definitive and widely available test is contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the chest.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Cardiology, Aortic Dissection:

“CT angiography of the chest is the gold standard for stable patients with suspected aortic dissection. Look for mediastinal widening on chest x-ray as a clue.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Cardiovascular Disease:

“Candidates should recognize acute aortic dissection and select appropriate imaging, such as CT chest, for diagnosis in stable patients.”

Transthoracic echo (A) may miss dissections. ECG (C) helps rule out MI but not dissection. V/Q scan (D) and pulmonary angiography (E) are for suspected pulmonary embolism.

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When a screening program is introduced, the incidence rate appears to rise because more cases (including subclinical ones) are identified earlier. This is known as “lead-time bias” or “ascertainment bias.”

Toronto Notes 2023 – Public Health, Screening and Epidemiology:

“Screening increases the apparent incidence of disease as more early or latent cases are detected.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Preventive Medicine > Screening:

“Candidates should understand how implementation of screening programs affects disease incidence and epidemiologic metrics.”

Case fatality rate (A) may decrease. PPV (B) depends on prevalence. Positive biopsy rate (C) may remain stable. Treatment rate (E) could increase, but incidence is the most directly and consistently affected.

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Referrals should be medically indicated. Physicians are not obligated to refer simply because a patient (or colleague) requests it, especially when it may lead to unnecessary care. The ethical and appropriate action is to explain your medical reasoning and decline an unwarranted referral.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, “Professionalism and Resource Stewardship” Section:

“Physicians have a responsibility to act as gatekeepers to specialist services and should not refer patients when criteria are not met. Explaining the reasoning and declining the request respectfully is appropriate.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Professionalism and Clinical Judgment):

“Candidates must demonstrate ethical reasoning in managing requests for unwarranted interventions.”

Involving the emergency department (B) or another physician (C) is not appropriate unless there's a true conflict of interest. Calling a consultant (E) may be unnecessary if no medical reason exists.

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When couples face infertility-related decisions—particularly involving donor insemination—psychosocial counseling is essential. A mental health consultation helps explore emotional concerns, expectations, and readiness for non-biological parenting.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Infertility and ART”:

“Psychological counseling is recommended for couples considering donor gametes to address emotional, ethical, and identity issues before proceeding.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Reproductive Ethics > 83-1):

“Candidates must understand the ethical and psychosocial considerations of assisted reproductive techniques and provide appropriate referrals.”

Suggesting adoption or switching care dismisses valid concerns (B, C). Ovulation induction (D) does not address azoospermia.

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This patient presents with fever, confusion, anemia with schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, and renal impairment — fulfilling the classic pentad of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). TTP is a hematologic emergency requiring plasma exchange.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Hematology, “Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia” Section:

“TTP is a medical emergency. Features include MAHA, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, neurologic symptoms, and fever. Schistocytes on blood film are diagnostic.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-7: Hematologic Disorders):

“Candidates must urgently recognize TTP and initiate emergent plasma exchange therapy.”

AML (B) does not present with schistocytes. HIV (C) can cause thrombocytopenia but not MAHA. ITP (D) causes isolated thrombocytopenia without anemia or schistocytes.

This patient has classic signs of cardiac tamponade (Beck's triad: hypotension, muffled heartsounds, elevated JVP, plus pulsus paradoxus). However, she also has advanced metastatic cancer, functional decline, and has stopped active treatment. In this context, a goals-of-care discussion is the most appropriate next step to determine her wishes regarding interventions like pericardiocentesis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Palliative Care:

“End-of-life care should prioritize quality of life and patient preferences. In patients with terminal illness and life-threatening conditions (e.g., tamponade), initiate a conversation about goals before aggressive intervention.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Palliative and End-of-Life Care:

“Candidates must assess prognosis, patient values, and initiate appropriate end-of-life discussions before invasive treatment.”

Although pericardiocentesis (A) may relieve symptoms, it should follow consent based on the patient’s goals. ICU (E), fluids (B), or transfusion (D) are not appropriate without this discussion.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The image and clinical history are consistent with physiologic pubertal gynecomastia, which is common in adolescent boys. It usually resolves spontaneously within 6 months to 2 years and does not require investigation unless other signs of endocrine pathology are present.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics / Endocrinology:

“Pubertal gynecomastia is benign, self-limited, and common in adolescent males. No further investigation is needed in the absence of systemic signs.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 77-2: Endocrine Disorders):

“Candidates must differentiate physiologic gynecomastia from pathologic causes based on history and physical exam.”

Other tests (A–C, E) are unnecessary unless there are red flags (e.g., testicular mass, rapid progression, neurological symptoms).

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Basement apartments are often damp environments, increasing the risk of mold exposure. Mold is a well-known asthma trigger. Given the timing (autumn/winter) and environment change, mold allergy is the most likely cause.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Respirology / Allergy:

“Mold is a common indoor allergen, especially in damp environments. It frequently exacerbates asthma, particularly in fall/winter.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 75-2: Asthma Triggers):

“Candidates must identify common environmental triggers for asthma, including mold exposure in humid or poorly ventilated housing.”

Cat allergy (B) would have triggered earlier. Pollen (D) is less relevant in winter. Cold intolerance (E) is not a major asthma trigger without exercise. Fungal infection (A) is unlikely without systemic symptoms.

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This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of chronic pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), especially given the left lower quadrant pain and dyspareunia with a normal pelvic ultrasound. PID is often caused by sexually transmitted infections (STIs), such as Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which may not be evident on imaging.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology:

“Cervical swabs for N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis are essential in the workup of suspected PID or cervicitis, even when imaging is normal. Dyspareunia and chronic pelvic pain with normal imaging should prompt testing for STIs.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics & Gynecology > 82-6: Pelvic Pain):

“Candidates must consider and investigate for infectious causes of pelvic pain, including PID, which requires cervical swab testing as an essential first-line investigation.”

Laparoscopy (A) is invasive and reserved for uncertain or refractory cases. Hysterosalpingography (C) is used in infertility workups, not acute pain. Endometrial biopsy (D) and MRI (E) are not first-line.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The combination of upper extremity hypertension and weak femoral pulses is classic for aortic coarctation. A soft systolic murmur may be present. This condition often becomes apparent during routine screening in school-aged children.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics / Cardiology:

“Coarctation of the aorta presents with upper limb hypertension, diminished femoral pulses, and sometimes a systolic murmur. BP discrepancy is key.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Congenital Heart Disease):

“Candidates must recognize signs of aortic coarctation, including weak lower limb pulses and systemic hypertension in children.”

VSD (A) typically presents with a louder murmur. Reflux nephropathy (B) may cause hypertension but without femoral pulse discrepancy. Renal artery thrombosis (C) is rare. Essential hypertension (D) is less likely in this age group with these findings.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Sexual dysfunction, including anorgasmia, is a common side effect of SSRIs like escitalopram. Bupropion, a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor, has minimal sexual side effects and can be safely added to mitigate this issue while preserving the antidepressant effect.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry / Pharmacology:

“SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction can be managed by dose reduction, switching agents, or adding bupropion.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: Depressive Disorders):

“Candidates should be able to address side effects of antidepressants, including sexual dysfunction, and adjust therapy appropriately.”

Increasing the dose (A) may worsen sexual dysfunction. Venlafaxine (B), an SNRI, also has sexual side effects. D (no change) does not address the patient's concern.

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This man exhibits a classic manic episode with psychotic features: persecutory delusions, distractibility, pressured speech, irritability, and possible grandiosity. The chronicity and mood symptoms are most consistent with Bipolar I disorder.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Mood Disorders” Section:

“Bipolar I disorder is characterized by episodes of mania, often with psychotic features.Symptoms include grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, distractibility, and mood-congruent delusions.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-1: Mood Disorders):

“Candidates must recognize mania and differentiate from brief psychosis or organic causes.”

Delirium (A) is acute, fluctuating, and involves impaired attention. Malingering (B) requires external gain. Brief psychotic disorder (C) resolves within 1 month. Brain injury–related psychosis (E) would require a supporting history or findings.

(Part 2 )

For women aged 25–69 years who have had adequate negative screening, the recommendation is to repeat cervical cytology (Pap test) every 3 years, regardless of family history. Cervical cancer is caused primarily by HPV infection, not hereditary genetics. Family history does not alter the screening interval.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, Cervical Cancer Screening Section:

“Routine screening with Pap test is recommended every 3 years in women aged 25–69 who have had three consecutive negative tests. Family history of cervical cancer does not modify the screening interval.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Obstetrics and Gynecology > Cancer Screening:

“Candidates must apply population-based cervical cancer screening guidelines. Family history is not a risk modifier for screening frequency in cervical cancer.”

Options A and B are inappropriate as they increase screening frequency without indication. HPV testing (D) or colposcopy (E) are not recommended without abnormal cytology.

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In any suspected occupational exposure, the first step is a detailed occupational history to assess the nature, intensity, and duration of the exposure. This determines whether surveillance or further testing is appropriate.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Respiratory Medicine, “Occupational Lung Diseases” Section:

“When a patient presents with concerns about exposure to occupational hazards such as asbestos, detailed history is essential. Ask about job tasks, duration of exposure, use of personal protective equipment, and prior workplace assessments.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-2: Environmental and Occupational Health):

“Candidates must be able to obtain a detailed environmental and occupational history and determine the risk of exposure before ordering investigations.”

Ordering a chest radiograph (B) or PFTs (E) without confirming meaningful exposure is premature. Referral to a specialist (D) and reassurance (A) come only after the exposure risk is assessed.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Middle-aged to older men with social isolation and substance use disorders (especially alcohol) are among the highest-risk groups for completed suicide. They are less likely to seek help and often use more lethal methods.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Suicide Risk Assessment”:

“High-risk demographics include older men, social isolation, comorbid alcohol use, and chronic illness. These patients have the highest rates of completed suicide.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: Suicide Risk):

“Candidates must recognize epidemiologic risk factors for completed suicide, including demographics and comorbidities.”

Although women and youth have higher rates of suicidal ideation and attempts, men over 50 have the highest completion rates.

Button batteries lodged in the esophagus require urgent endoscopic removal due to risk of tissue necrosis, perforation, and tracheoesophageal fistula within hours. Batteries beyond the esophagus may pass spontaneously if the child is asymptomatic.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Foreign Body Ingestion”:

“Button batteries in the esophagus are medical emergencies and must be removed immediately. Batteries in the stomach or intestines may be observed if the child is asymptomatic.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Gastrointestinal Emergencies):

“Candidates must identify when foreign body ingestion poses immediate risk and requires emergency intervention.”

Batteries in the stomach or intestines (A–C, E) usually pass without complication, especially if the child is asymptomatic and the battery is <2 cm.

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Before proceeding with any virtual consultation, particularly by voice-only, it is essential to confirm the patient’s identity beyond name alone — for example, by verifying date of birth or health card number. This protects privacy and ensures medical confidentiality.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, Virtual Care Section:

“Virtual care must begin by verifying patient identity using at least two identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth) to prevent disclosure of personal health information to unintended individuals.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Ethical, Legal, and Professionalism > Virtual Care:

“The candidate must confirm patient identity and consent before initiating any virtual medical encounter, especially when video is not available.”

Option A (reason for visit) should follow identity confirmation. Option B (confirming primary care provider) is irrelevant to identity verification.

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Children with a first-degree relative who has premature coronary artery disease or hypercholesterolemia should undergo fasting lipid screening between ages 2–10. Since the child is 10, screening is indicated.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Preventive Care in Children”:

“Lipid screening is recommended for children ≥2 years old with a family history of early cardiovascular disease or hypercholesterolemia.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Preventive Medicine):

“Candidates must screen children at high risk of cardiovascular disease appropriately, including lipid profile for familial hyperlipidemia.”

Diet and exercise counseling may follow screening, but testing is the first step. Reassurance alone (C) is inappropriate. Homocysteine (E) and HbA1c are not first-line tests in this setting.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient has tardive dyskinesia, a late-onset, often irreversible movement disorder caused by chronic dopamine receptor blockade (e.g., haloperidol). It is especially common in older adults and may not resolve after stopping the drug.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Extrapyramidal Symptoms”:

“Tardive dyskinesia is often irreversible and typically occurs after prolonged antipsychotic use. Elderly patients are at greater risk.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Side Effects of Psychotropics):

“Candidates must recognize tardive dyskinesia and understand that it can persist or worsen even after discontinuation of antipsychotics.”

Anticholinergics may worsen it (D). The condition does not reliably improve with age (C). It does not affect a majority of patients (A).

This is a classic presentation of diabetic peripheral neuropathy: bilateral distal sensory symptoms with preserved motor function and no other systemic findings. The most useful test to confirm this in a previously undiagnosed patient is HbA1c.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Endocrinology, Diabetes Complications:

“Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of undiagnosed or poorly controlled diabetes. Confirm with HbA1c if diagnosis is not yet established.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:

“Candidates should evaluate for diabetes in patients with peripheral neuropathy and screen appropriately with HbA1c.”

Folate (B) and B12 deficiency may also cause neuropathy but are less likely in the absence of nutritional risk factors. Other choices (A, D, E) are unrelated to this pattern.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

A fluctuant, erythematous, tender breast mass with systemic signs (fever, lymphadenopathy) and ultrasound showing a cystic lesion is diagnostic for a breast abscess. It commonly arises from untreated mastitis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Surgery, “Breast Disease”:

“Abscess presents as a fluctuant, erythematous mass. Ultrasound confirms loculated fluid. Treatment includes drainage and antibiotics.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 50-1: Breast Conditions):

“Candidates must identify signs of infection and abscess and differentiate from malignancy or benign lesions.”

Fibroadenoma (C) is non-tender, mobile, and firm. Ductal ectasia (B) causes nipple discharge. Fibrocystic changes (D) are bilateral and cyclic. Inflammatory breast cancer (E) is rapidly progressive but lacks fluctuation and cystic features.