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Question # 4

Which of the following is a primary purpose of establishing cloud risk registries?

A.

In order to establish cloud service level agreements

B.

To monitor real-lime cloud performance

C.

To manage and update cloud account credentials

D.

Identify and manage risks associated with cloud services

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Question # 5

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

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Question # 6

How does cloud adoption impact incident response processes in cybersecurity?

A.

It only affects data storage and not incident response

B.

It has no significant impact on incident response processes

C.

It simplifies incident response by consolidating processes

D.

It introduces different processes, technologies, and governance models

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Question # 7

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

A.

Component credentials

B.

Immutable infrastructure

C.

Infrastructure as code

D.

Application integration

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Question # 8

An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to

A.

Obtain provider permission for test

B.

Use techniques to evade cloud provider’s detection systems

C.

Use application layer testing tools exclusively

D.

Use network layer testing tools exclusively

E.

Schedule vulnerability test at night

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Question # 9

Why is early integration of pre-deployment testing crucial in a cybersecurity project?

A.

It identifies issues before full deployment, saving time and resources.

B.

It increases the overall testing time and costs.

C.

It allows skipping final verification tests.

D.

It eliminates the need for continuous integration.

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Question # 10

Which plane in a network architecture is responsible for controlling all administrative actions?

A.

Forwarding plane

B.

Management plane

C.

Data plane

D.

Application plane

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Question # 11

Which of the following best describes a primary focus of cloud governance with an emphasis on security?

A.

Enhancing user experience with intuitive interfaces.

B.

Maximizing cost savings through resource optimization.

C.

Increasing scalability and flexibility of cloud solutions.

D.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements and internal policies.

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Question # 12

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

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Question # 13

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 14

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

A.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

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Question # 15

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

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Question # 16

Which component is primarily responsible for filtering and monitoring HTTP/S traffic to and from a web application?

A.

Anti-virus Software

B.

Load Balancer

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 17

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 18

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

A.

Multiple copies in different locations

B.

Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly

C.

Full back ups weekly

D.

Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures

E.

Incremental backups daily

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Question # 19

What is the primary function of Data Encryption Keys (DEK) in cloud security?

A.

To increase the speed of cloud services

B.

To encrypt application data

C.

To directly manage user access control

D.

To serve as the primary key for all cloud resources

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Question # 20

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

A.

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

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Question # 21

Which of the following strategies best enhances infrastructure resilience against Cloud Service Provider (CSP) technical failures?

A.

Local backup

B.

Multi-region resiliency

C.

Single-region resiliency

D.

High Availability within one data center

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Question # 22

What does it mean if the system or environment is built automatically from a template?

A.

Nothing.

B.

It depends on how the automation is configured.

C.

Changes made in production are overwritten by the next code or template change.

D.

Changes made in test are overwritten by the next code or template change.

E.

Changes made in production are untouched by the next code or template change.

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Question # 23

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

A.

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

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Question # 24

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?

A.

Data Security and Encryption

B.

Information Governance

C.

Incident Response, Notification and Remediation

D.

Compliance and Audit Management

E.

Infrastructure Security

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Question # 25

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

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Question # 26

ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes

A.

Sales

B.

Marketing

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Auditors

E.

Accounting

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Question # 27

Which cloud deployment model involves a cloud and a datacenter, bound together by technology to enable data and application portability?

A.

Hybrid cloud

B.

Public cloud

C.

Multi-cloud

D.

Private cloud

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Question # 28

In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

A.

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

B.

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

C.

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

D.

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

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Question # 29

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Datastructure

C.

Infostructure

D.

Applistructure

E.

Metastructure

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Question # 30

Which AI workload mitigation strategy best addresses model inversion attacks that threaten data confidentiality?

A.

Secure multi-party computation

B.

Differential privacy

C.

Encryption

D.

Model hardening

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Question # 31

Why is it essential to include key metrics and periodic reassessment in cybersecurity governance?

A.

To meet legal requirements and avoid fines

B.

To ensure effective and continuous improvement of security measures

C.

To document all cybersecurity incidents and monitor them overtime

D.

To reduce the number of security incidents to zero

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Question # 32

What is a primary objective of cloud governance in an organization?

A.

Implementing multi-tenancy and resource pooling.

B.

To align cloud usage with corporate objectives

C.

Simplifying scalability and automating resource management

D.

Enhancing user experience and reducing latency

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Question # 33

Which practice ensures container security by preventing post-deployment modifications?

A.

Implementing dynamic network segmentation policies

B.

Employing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) for container access

C.

Regular vulnerability scanning of deployed containers

D.

Use of immutable containers

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Question # 34

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualizations?

A.

Enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure

B.

Monitor and log workloads and configure the security settings

C.

Enforce isolation and configure the security settings

D.

Maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure and configure the security settings

E.

Enforce isolation and monitor and log workloads

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Question # 35

Which statement best describes the impact of Cloud Computing on business continuity management?

A.

A general lack of interoperability standards means that extra focus must be placed on the security aspects of migration between Cloud providers.

B.

The size of data sets hosted at a Cloud provider can present challenges if migration to another provider becomes necessary.

C.

Customers of SaaS providers in particular need to mitigate the risks of application lock-in.

D.

Clients need to do business continuity planning due diligence in case they suddenly need to switch providers.

E.

Geographic redundancy ensures that Cloud Providers provide highly available services.

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Question # 36

What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?

A.

Administrative access

B.

Management plane

C.

Identity and Access Management

D.

Single sign-on

E.

Cloud dashboard

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Question # 37

What key activities are part of the preparation phase in incident response planning?

A.

Implementing encryption and access controls

B.

Establishing a response process, training, communication plans, and infrastructure evaluations

C.

Creating incident reports and post-incident reviews

D.

Developing malware analysis procedures and penetration testing

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Question # 38

What tool allows teams to easily locate and integrate with approved cloud services?

A.

Contracts

B.

Shared Responsibility Model

C.

Service Registry

D.

Risk Register

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Question # 39

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

A.

Intrusion Prevention System

B.

URL filters

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.

Database Activity Monitoring

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Question # 40

What is a key characteristic of serverless functions in terms of execution environment?

A.

They need continuous monitoring by the user

B.

They run on dedicated long-running instances

C.

They require pre-allocated server space

D.

They are executed in isolated, ephemeral environments

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Question # 41

APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 42

In which deployment model should the governance strategy consider the minimum common set of controls comprised of the Cloud Service Provider contract and the organization's internal governance agreements?

A.

Public

B.

PaaS

C.

Private

D.

IaaS

E.

Hybrid

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Question # 43

Which of the following best describes the role of program frameworks in defining security components and technical controls?

A.

Program frameworks evaluate the performance of individual security tools

B.

Program frameworks focus on implementing specific security technologies

C.

Program frameworks help organize overarching security policies and objectives

D.

Program frameworks primarily define compliance requirements for regulations

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Question # 44

What is critical for securing serverless computing models in the cloud?

A.

Disabling console access completely or using privileged access management

B.

Validating the underlying container security

C.

Managing secrets and configuration with the least privilege

D.

Placing serverless components behind application load balancers

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Question # 45

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

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Question # 46

Which practice minimizes human error in long-running cloud workloads’ security management?

A.

Increasing manual security audits frequency

B.

Converting all workloads to ephemeral

C.

Restricting access to workload configurations

D.

Implementing automated security and compliance checks

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Question # 47

Which of the following best describes a key benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

A.

SDN is a hardware-based solution for optimizing network performance

B.

SDN eliminates the need for physical network devices and cabling

C.

SDN allows networks to be dynamically configured and managed through software

D.

SDN is primarily focused on improving network security through advanced firewalls

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Question # 48

Which term describes the practice in cloud compliance where a customer acquires a set of pre-approved regulatory or standards-based controls from a compliant provider?

A.

Automated compliance

B.

Attestation inheritance

C.

Audit inheritance

D.

Compliance inheritance

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Question # 49

What primary aspects should effective cloud governance address to ensure security and compliance?

A.

Service availability, disaster recovery, load balancing, and latency

B.

Decision making, prioritization, monitoring, and transparency

C.

Encryption, redundancy, data integrity, and scalability

D.

Authentication, authorization, accounting, and auditing

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Question # 50

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

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Question # 51

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

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Question # 52

What Identity and Access Management (IAM) process decides to permit or deny a subject access to system objects like networks, data, or applications?

A.

Authorization

B.

Federation

C.

Authentication

D.

Provisioning

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Question # 53

Which aspect of cybersecurity can AI enhance by reducing false positive alerts?

A.

Anomaly detection

B.

Assisting analysts

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Automated responses

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Question # 54

In cloud environments, why are Management Plane Logs indispensable for security monitoring?

A.

They provide real-time threat detection and response

B.

They detail the network traffic between cloud services

C.

They track cloud administrative activities

D.

They report on user activities within applications

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Question # 55

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

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Question # 56

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

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Question # 57

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 58

Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

A.

Spam filtering

B.

Authentication

C.

Provisioning

D.

Web filtering

E.

Intrusion detection

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Question # 59

What is the primary function of a Load Balancer Service in a Software Defined Network (SDN) environment?

A.

To create isolated virtual networks

B.

To monitor network performance and activity

C.

To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations

D.

To encrypt data for secure transmission

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Question # 60

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

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Question # 61

What is the purpose of access policies in the context of security?

A.

Access policies encrypt sensitive data to protect it from disclosure and unrestricted access.

B.

Access policies define the permitted actions that can be performed on resources.

C.

Access policies determine where data can be stored.

D.

Access policies scan systems to detect and remove malware infections.

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Question # 62

The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components?

A.

Client, Controller, and Gateway

B.

Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

C.

Client, Firewall, and Gateway

D.

Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

E.

Client, Controller, and Firewall

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Question # 63

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

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Question # 64

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

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Question # 65

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 66

When implementing a Zero Trust (ZT) strategy, which approach is considered fundamental for ensuring enterprise security and connectivity?

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to resources within local networks but restricting cloud access

B.

Implementing perimeter-based security as the primary defense mechanism

C.

Enforcing strict access control and verification for all users and devices

D.

Only allowing trusted devices to connect to local/office networks

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Question # 67

What is true of a workload?

A.

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.

It does not require a hardware stack

C.

It is always a virtual machine

D.

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.

It must be containerized

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Question # 68

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

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Question # 69

Which tool is most effective for ensuring compliance and identifying misconfigurations in cloud management planes?

A.

Data Security Posture Management (DSPM)

B.

SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)

C.

Cloud Detection and Response (CDR)

D.

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

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Question # 70

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 71

Which of the following best describes an authoritative source in the context of identity management?

A.

A list of permissions assigned to different users

B.

A network resource that handles authorization requests

C.

A database containing all entitlements

D.

A trusted system holding accurate identity information

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Question # 72

In the context of incident response, which phase involves alerts validation to reduce false positives and estimates the incident's scope?

A.

Preparation

B.

Post-Incident Analysis

C.

Detection & Analysis

D.

Containment, Eradication, & Recovery

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Question # 73

Which of the following best describes the shift-left approach in software development?

A.

Relies only on automated security testing tools

B.

Emphasizes post-deployment security audits

C.

Focuses on security only during the testing phase

D.

Integrates security early in the development process

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Question # 74

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

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Question # 75

What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

A.

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

B.

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

C.

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

D.

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

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Question # 76

When investigating an incident in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment, what can the user investigate on their own?

A.

The CSP server facility

B.

The logs of all customers in a multi-tenant cloud

C.

The network components controlled by the CSP

D.

The CSP office spaces

E.

Their own virtual instances in the cloud

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Question # 77

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

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Question # 78

How can web security as a service be deployed for a cloud consumer?

A.

By proxying or redirecting web traffic to the cloud provider

B.

By utilizing a partitioned network drive

C.

On the premise through a software or appliance installation

D.

Both A and C

E.

None of the above

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Question # 79

What is a primary benefit of implementing micro-segmentation within a Zero Trust Architecture?

A.

Simplifies network design and maintenance

B.

Enhances security by isolating workloads from each other

C.

Increases the overall performance of network traffic

D.

Reduces the need for encryption across the network

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Question # 80

What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?

A.

Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.

B.

Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.

C.

Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.

D.

Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.

E.

Both B and D.

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Question # 81

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

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Question # 82

Which type of AI workload typically requires large data sets and substantial computing resources?

A.

Evaluation

B.

Data Preparation

C.

Training

D.

Inference

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Question # 83

What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

A.

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

B.

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

C.

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

D.

To ensure high availability and load balancing

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Question # 84

What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

A.

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

B.

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

C.

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

D.

To manage data residency and localization requirements

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Question # 85

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

A.

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

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Question # 86

Why is identity management at the organization level considered a key aspect in cybersecurity?

A.

It replaces the need to enforce the principles of the need to know

B.

It ensures only authorized users have access to resources

C.

It automates and streamlines security processes in the organization

D.

It reduces the need for regular security training and auditing, and frees up cybersecurity budget

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Question # 87

All assets require the same continuity in the cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 88

Which of the following functionalities is provided by Data Security Posture Management (DSPM) tools?

A.

Firewall management and configuration

B.

User activity monitoring and reporting

C.

Encryption of all data at rest and in transit

D.

Visualization and management for cloud data security

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Question # 89

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

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Question # 90

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

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Question # 91

Why is it important to capture and centralize workload logs promptly in a cybersecurity environment?

A.

To simplify application debugging processesB Primarily to reduce data storage costs

B.

Logs may be lost during a scaling event

C.

To comply with data privacy regulations

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