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Question # 4

What goal is most directly achieved by implementing controls and policies that aim to provide a complete view of data use and exposure in a cloud environment?

A.

Enhancing data governance and compliance

B.

Simplifying cloud service integrations

C.

Increasing cloud data processing speed

D.

Reducing the cost of cloud storage

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Question # 5

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

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Question # 6

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

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Question # 7

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

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Question # 8

How does network segmentation primarily contribute to limiting the impact of a security breach?

A.

By reducing the threat of breaches and vulnerabilities

B.

Confining breaches to a smaller portion of the network

C.

Allowing faster data recovery and response

D.

Monitoring and detecting unauthorized access attempts

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Question # 9

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

A.

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

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Question # 10

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

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Question # 11

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

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Question # 12

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

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Question # 13

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

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Question # 14

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

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Question # 15

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

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Question # 16

What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

A.

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

B.

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

C.

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

D.

To manage data residency and localization requirements

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Question # 17

What is the primary purpose of secrets management in cloud environments?

A.

Optimizing cloud infrastructure performance

B.

Managing user authentication for human access

C.

Securely handling stored authentication credentials

D.

Monitoring network traffic for security threats

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Question # 18

What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Audit

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Incident response

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Question # 19

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

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Question # 20

Which cloud service model allows users to access applications hosted and managed by the provider, with the user only needing to configure the application?

A.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

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Question # 21

How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

A.

It consolidates logs into a single location.

B.

It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.

C.

It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.

D.

It automatically resolves all detected security threats.

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Question # 22

What is a key consideration when implementing AI workloads to ensure they adhere to security best practices?

A.

AI workloads do not require special security considerations compared to other workloads.

B.

AI workloads should be openly accessible to foster collaboration and innovation.

C.

AI workloads should be isolated in secure environments with strict access controls.

D.

Security practices for AI workloads should focus solely on protecting the AI models.

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Question # 23

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

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Question # 24

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

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Question # 25

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

A.

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

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Question # 26

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

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Question # 27

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

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Question # 28

Which of the following cloud essential characteristics refers to the capability of the service to scale resources up or down quickly and efficiently based on demand?

A.

On-Demand Self-Service

B.

Broad Network Access

C.

Resource Pooling

D.

Rapid Elasticity

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Question # 29

What is the primary role of Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

A.

To encrypt data at rest and in transit

B.

Ensure only authorized entities access resources

C.

To monitor and log all user activities and traffic

D.

Ensure all users have the same level of access

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Question # 30

Why is consulting with stakeholders important for ensuring cloud security strategy alignment?

A.

IT simplifies the cloud platform selection process

B.

It reduces the overall cost of cloud services.

C.

It ensures that the strategy meets diverse business requirements.

D.

It ensures compliance with technical standards only.

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Question # 31

What is one of the primary advantages of including Static Application Security Testing (SAST) in Continuous Integration (CI) pipelines?

A.

Identifies code vulnerabilities early in the development

B.

Increases the speed of deployment to production

C.

Improves runtime performance of the application

D.

Enhances the user interface of the application

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Question # 32

Which of the following best describes the concept of AI as a Service (AIaaS)?

A.

Selling Al hardware to enterprises for internal use

B.

Hosting and running Al models with customer-built solutions

C.

Offering pre-built Al models to third-party vendors

D.

Providing software as an Al model with no customization options

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Question # 33

In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?

A.

The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.

B.

The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.

C.

The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.

D.

The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.

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Question # 34

In a cloud environment spanning multiple jurisdictions, what is the most important factor to consider for compliance?

A.

Relying on the cloud service provider's compliance certifications for all jurisdictions

B.

Focusing on the compliance requirements defined by the laws, regulations, and standards enforced in the jurisdiction where the company is based

C.

Relying only on established industry standards since they adequately address all compliance needs

D.

Understanding the legal and regulatory requirements of each jurisdiction where data originates, is stored, or processed

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Question # 35

Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

A.

Use of encryption for all data at rest

B.

Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C.

Regular software updates and patch management

D.

Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

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Question # 36

Which of the following statements best reflects the responsibility of organizations regarding cloud security and data ownership?

A.

Cloud providers are responsible for everything under the 'limited O responsibilities clauses.' The customer and the provider have joint accountability.

B.

Cloud providers assume full responsibility for the security obligations, and cloud customers are accountable for overall compliance.

C.

Data ownership rights are solely determined by the cloud provider, leaving organizations with no control or accountability over their data.

D.

Organizations are accountable for the security and compliance of their data and systems, even though they may lack full visibility into their cloud provider's infrastructure.

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Question # 37

In the IaaS shared responsibility model, which responsibility typically falls on the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

A.

Encrypting data at rest

B.

Ensuring physical security of data centers

C.

Managing application code

D.

Configuring firewall rules

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Question # 38

When establishing a cloud incident response program, what access do responders need to effectively analyze incidents?

A.

Access limited to log events for incident analysis

B.

Unlimited write access for all responders at all times

C.

Full-read access without any approval process

D.

Persistent read access and controlled write access for critical situations

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Question # 39

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 40

Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?

A.

The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.

B.

The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.

C.

The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment infrastructure.

D.

The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.

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Question # 41

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

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Question # 42

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

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Question # 43

What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

A.

Customers can bypass the need for encryption

B.

Customers retain control over their encryption keys

C.

Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

D.

It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider

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Question # 44

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

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Question # 45

Which of the following best describes a risk associated with insecure interfaces and APIs?

A.

Ensuring secure data encryption at rest

B.

Man-in-the-middle attacks

C.

Increase resource consumption on servers

D.

Data exposure to unauthorized users

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Question # 46

Which of the following best describes a benefit of using VPNs for cloud connectivity?

A.

VPNs are more cost-effective than any other connectivity option.

B.

VPNs provide secure, encrypted connections between data centers and cloud deployments.

C.

VPNs eliminate the need for third-party authentication services.

D.

VPNs provide higher bandwidth than direct connections.

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Question # 47

What is a key component of governance in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Defining roles and responsibilities

B.

Standardizing technical specifications for security control

C.

Defining tools and technologies

D.

Enforcement of the Penetration Testing procedure

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Question # 48

In the initial stage of implementing centralized identity management, what is the primary focus of cybersecurity measures?

A.

Developing incident response plans

B.

Integrating identity management and securing devices

C.

Implementing advanced threat detection systems

D.

Deploying network segmentation

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Question # 49

In cloud environments, why are Management Plane Logs indispensable for security monitoring?

A.

They provide real-time threat detection and response

B.

They detail the network traffic between cloud services

C.

They track cloud administrative activities

D.

They report on user activities within applications

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Question # 50

When comparing different Cloud Service Providers (CSPs), what should a cybersecurity professional be mindful of regarding their organizational structures?

A.

All CSPs use the same organizational structure and terminology

B.

Different CSPs may have similar structures but use varying terminology

C.

CSPs have vastly different organizational structures and identical terminology

D.

Terminology difference in CSPs does not affect cybersecurity practices.

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Question # 51

Which of the following best describes a primary focus of cloud governance with an emphasis on security?

A.

Enhancing user experience with intuitive interfaces.

B.

Maximizing cost savings through resource optimization.

C.

Increasing scalability and flexibility of cloud solutions.

D.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements and internal policies.

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Question # 52

Which component is primarily responsible for filtering and monitoring HTTP/S traffic to and from a web application?

A.

Anti-virus Software

B.

Load Balancer

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 53

What is critical for securing serverless computing models in the cloud?

A.

Disabling console access completely or using privileged access management

B.

Validating the underlying container security

C.

Managing secrets and configuration with the least privilege

D.

Placing serverless components behind application load balancers

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Question # 54

What is the main purpose of multi-region resiliency in cloud environments?

A.

To increase the number of users in each region

B.

To ensure compliance with regional and international data laws

C.

To reduce the cost of deployments and increase efficiency

D.

To improve fault tolerance through deployments across multiple regions

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Question # 55

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in a security context?

A.

Manual patch management

B.

Ad hoc security policies

C.

Static resource allocation

D.

Automated compliance checks

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Question # 56

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

A.

Detective controls

B.

Preventive controls

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Administrative controls

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Question # 57

What primary purpose does object storage encryption serve in cloud services?

A.

It compresses data to save space

B.

It speeds up data retrieval times

C.

It monitors unauthorized access attempts

D.

It secures data stored as objects

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Question # 58

Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?

A.

Firewalls

B.

Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

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Question # 59

What type of information is contained in the Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Control Matrix?

A.

Network traffic rules for cloud environments

B.

A number of requirements to be implemented, based upon numerous standards and regulatory requirements

C.

Federal legal business requirements for all cloud operators

D.

A list of cloud configurations including traffic logic and efficient routes

E.

The command and control management hierarchy of typical cloud company

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Question # 60

APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 61

Any given processor and memory will nearly always be running multiple workloads, often from different tenants.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 62

Network logs from cloud providers are typically flow records, not full packet captures.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 63

Your SLA with your cloud provider ensures continuity for all services.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 64

What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?

A.

Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.

B.

Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.

C.

Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.

D.

Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.

E.

Both B and D.

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Question # 65

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

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Question # 66

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

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Question # 67

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 68

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

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Question # 69

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

A.

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

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Question # 70

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 71

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 72

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 73

In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity

manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

A.

Only the cloud consumer

B.

Only the cloud provider

C.

Both the cloud provider and consumer

D.

It is determined in the agreement between the entities

E.

It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

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Question # 74

When designing an encryption system, you should start with a threat model.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 75

Which of the following statements best defines the "authorization" as a component of identity, entitlement, and access management?

A.

The process of specifying and maintaining access policies

B.

Checking data storage to make sure it meets compliance requirements

C.

Giving a third party vendor permission to work on your cloud solution

D.

Establishing/asserting the identity to the application

E.

Enforcing the rules by which access is granted to the resources

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Question # 76

The containment phase of the incident response lifecycle requires taking systems offline.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 77

In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

A.

proxy encryption

B.

data rights management

C.

hypervisor agents

D.

data dispersion

E.

random placement

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Question # 78

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 79

CCM: The Cloud Service Delivery Model Applicability column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

A.

Mappings to well-known standards and frameworks

B.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

C.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

D.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

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Question # 80

What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure?

A.

You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis.

B.

You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls.

C.

You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility.

D.

You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary.

E.

You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.

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Question # 81

What is resource pooling?

A.

The provider’s computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers.

B.

Internet-based CPUs are pooled to enable multi-threading.

C.

The dedicated computing resources of each client are pooled together in a colocation facility.

D.

Placing Internet (“cloud”) data centers near multiple sources of energy, such as hydroelectric dams.

E.

None of the above.

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Question # 82

Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

A.

Spam filtering

B.

Authentication

C.

Provisioning

D.

Web filtering

E.

Intrusion detection

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Question # 83

What should every cloud customer set up with its cloud service provider (CSP) that can be utilized in the event of an incident?

A.

A data destruction plan

B.

A communication plan

C.

A back-up website

D.

A spill remediation kit

E.

A rainy day fund

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Question # 84

Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal

security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?

A.

Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery

B.

Infrastructure Security

C.

Compliance and Audit Management

D.

Information Governance

E.

Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

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Question # 85

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

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Question # 86

What item below allows disparate directory services and independent security domains to be interconnected?

A.

Coalition

B.

Cloud

C.

Intersection

D.

Union

E.

Federation

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