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Internal Audit Fundamentals

Last Update 15 hours ago Total Questions : 858

The Internal Audit Fundamentals content is now fully updated, with all current exam questions added 15 hours ago. Deciding to include IIA-CIA-Part1 practice exam questions in your study plan goes far beyond basic test preparation.

You'll find that our IIA-CIA-Part1 exam questions frequently feature detailed scenarios and practical problem-solving exercises that directly mirror industry challenges. Engaging with these IIA-CIA-Part1 sample sets allows you to effectively manage your time and pace yourself, giving you the ability to finish any Internal Audit Fundamentals practice test comfortably within the allotted time.

Question # 221

During the closing meeting of a procurement audit, the business manager disagrees with the observation presented by the engagement supervisor and accuses the team of not understanding the procurement objectives The engagement supervisor blames the manager for impeding the audit What skillset should the chief audit executive utilize to manage this situation?

A.

The ability to negotiate

B.

The ability to use analytical tools

C.

The ability to foresee issues

D.

The ability to manage conflict

Question # 222

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate example of the internal audit activity exercising due professional care during an audit of the payroll department?

A.

Internal auditors ensure that the work program is appropriately designed in order to identify all of the risks surrounding the payroll process.

B.

Internal auditors determine whether the policies, procedures, and practices of the payroll department are operating in accordance with relevant laws.

C.

Internal auditors verify whether the board of directors has implemented effective internal controls over the processes used by the payroll department.

D.

Internal auditors ask the organization ' s risk manager to determine whether the degree of work planned is sufficient to determine whether payroll payments were complete and accurate.

Question # 223

Which of the following statements is true regarding the importance of risk management?

A.

Risk management ensures the ability to eliminate potential hazards to the organization.

B.

Risk management includes consideration of potential opportunities for the organization.

C.

Risk management aids with the establishment of appropriate key performance indicators.

D.

Risk management increases employees ' commitment and belief in strategic goals.

Question # 224

In a small company with a small budget, the board and senior management asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to develop specific controls prompted by a new regulatory requirement affecting a specific process. The CAE was also directed to report functionally to senior management. An audit engagement on this process was already set in the internal audit plan. Which of the following represents an impairment to the internal audit activity ' s independence?

A.

The development of controls by the CAE.

B.

The audit engagement regarding this process.

C.

The functional reporting of the CAE to senior management.

D.

The small budget.

Question # 225

Which documents would help a forensic auditor identify instances of collusion between an employee and vendor to defraud the organization?

A.

Email correspondence.

B.

Payment request forms.

C.

Vendor invoices.

D.

Bank statements.

Question # 226

Which of the following activities would an internal auditor perform as a consulting engagement for an organization?

A.

Advising new internal auditors working for the organization on how to develop strategies on planning audits for the upcoming fiscal year

B.

Assessing whether the organization ' s corporate social responsibility program is meeting its yearly goals to reduce carbon emissions.

C.

Briefing the organization ' s department managers on how to implement risk management processes into their daily operations.

D.

Communicating with senior management to better understand how new purchasing controls will minimize payment processing time.

Question # 227

Which of the following is the best reason why the engagement supervisor should take care in explaining to local management the criteria that will be used to measure the effectiveness of the control environment?

A.

The assessment will cover soft controls and company values.

B.

The assessment will focus on the policy for a particular process.

C.

The assessment will lack a defined scope

D.

The assessment will probably uncover fraud risks.

Question # 228

Which of the following scenarios would most likely impair the internal audit function’s independence?

A.

An internal auditor assisted external auditors with a review of the payables department. The auditor worked in the payables department a little over a year ago.

B.

The chief audit executive had responsibility for the risk management function and helped coordinate an audit of that area by a third-party consultant.

C.

The chief audit executive was urged by the chief financial officer to scale down an accounts payable audit due to limited funds to cover audit costs.

D.

A new internal auditor was part of a team reviewing an area for which she was responsible less than a year ago. The advisory engagement was requested by management.

Question # 229

Which of the following strategies would be the most effective to share an organization ' s risk of losses through foreign currency transactions related to the accounts payable process?

A.

Using a hedging strategy.

B.

Implementing controls to follow up on deviations.

C.

Purchasing liability insurance.

D.

Purchasing foreign currency reserves.

Question # 230

To achieve conformance with the Standards, the chief audit executive must include which of the following activities in the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

A.

Require board oversight of the QAIP.

B.

Assess Standards conformance for each individual engagement.

C.

Conduct a self assessment at least once every five years.

D.

Report the results of the QAIP to senior management

Question # 231

What is the primary purpose of The IIA ' s Code of Ethics?

A.

Communicate specific activities appropriate to the performance of internal auditing.

B.

Promote ethical culture within corporations and other business organizations.

C.

Establish mandatory standards of competence for the practice of internal auditing.

D.

Establish principles and expectations governing behavior of individuals and organizations in the conduct of internal auditing.

Question # 232

A newly hired chief audit executive is reviewing available documentation to provide evidence of conformance with the standard for continuing professional development. Which of the following documents is the most reliable source for this purpose?

A.

The organization ' s training policy.

B.

A list of auditors who requested to attend the next audit conference.

C.

Self-assessments against an internally developed audit benchmark

D.

In house training manual

Question # 233

Which level of corporate social responsibility does whistleblowing in companies primarily support?

A.

Ethical responsibility.

B.

Economic responsibility.

C.

Legal responsibility.

D.

Discretionary responsibility.

Question # 234

The chief audit executive (CAE) has decided to outsource an audit of the organization ' s cloud governance in the annual audit plan. Why would the CAE outsource this audit?

A.

Lack of internal audit staff proficiency.

B.

Lack of audit planning.

C.

Lack of internal assessments.

D.

Lack of due professional care.

Question # 235

Which of the following is the primary benefit of establishing a formal training program for the internal audit activity?

A.

It is useful to reinforce the independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

It is useful to guide internal auditors as they perform specific engagements.

C.

It is useful to maintain the skills and competencies of internal audit staff.

D.

It is useful to measure the effectiveness and maturity of the internal audit activity.

Question # 236

With regard to the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program, which of the following must be reported to the board?

A.

A statement of independence of the organization ' s internal auditors.

B.

Meeting minutes with the assessment team, if key risks were identified and discussed.

C.

Frequency of the quality assessments being performed.

D.

Summary of previous internal assessments undertaken.

Question # 237

Which of the following would the chief audit executive be required to disclose in the communication of quality assessment results to senior management and the board?

A.

The cost and frequency of both internal and external assessments.

B.

Any assumptions made by the assessment team

C.

A potential conflict of interest of the assessment team.

D.

The assessment team’s execution plan of relevant procedures.

Question # 238

How can internal auditors best enhance the credibility and value of their work?

A.

By prioritizing management’s advisory requests over assurance engagements.

B.

By documenting workpapers after engagements are completed.

C.

By following audit programs from previous assurance engagements.

D.

By providing risk-based advice.

Question # 239

An organization established 20 years ago has had its internal audit activity in place for the last three years. Which of the following would allow the internal audit activity to accurately state that it is in conformance with the Standards ' ?

A.

Documented assessment was performed by the audit committee and confirmed conformance.

B.

Internal and external assessments are performed annually, and nonconformance results are reported to the board.

C.

The independent and objective judgement of the chief audit executive confirmed conformance with the Standards.

D.

Documented internal assessments are performed periodically and confirm conformance.

Question # 240

Applying ISO 31000, which of the following is part of the external context for risk management?

A.

Risk treatment method based on risk evaluation.

B.

Organizational culture, objectives, and processes.

C.

The regulatory and competitive environment

D.

The method of determining the risk level.

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