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Question # 4

Which of the following statements about router R1 is TRUE?

A.

Router R1 is an iLER for both LSPs.

B.

Router R1 is an eLER for both LSPs.

C.

Router R1 is an iLER for LSP A and an eLER for LSP B.

D.

Router R1 is an iLER for LSP B and an eLER for LSP A.

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Question # 5

Which of the following routing protocols provides routing between routers R1 and R2?

A.

BGP

B.

RIPv2

C.

OSPF

D.

IS-IS

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Question # 6

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to the compact flash?

A.

Console

B.

Session

C.

Memory

D.

File

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Question # 7

Which of the following IP header fields defines the way packets should be queued?

A.

Type of Service

B.

Identification

C.

Flags

D.

Protocol

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Question # 8

Which of the following statements about IP address subnetting is TRUE?

A.

Subnetting adds a layer of hierarchy in the addressing structure.

B.

Subnetting helps routers make faster forwarding decisions.

C.

Subnetting increases routing advertisement stability.

D.

Subnetting reduces the number of route entries advertised by the router.

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Question # 9

Which of the following are TRUE statements about the router ID in OSPF? (Choose two.)

A.

A router ID is not required by OSPF.

B.

The system address is used as the router ID if router-id is not set.

C.

The router ID is used to uniquely identify every OSPF router.

D.

On the Nokia 7750 SR, the router ID is set to the highest logical IP address if router-id is not explicitly set.

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Question # 10

SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet port, or a port with a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 11

A CE device has a physical connection to which device in the service providers MPLS network?

A.

CE always connects to a PE router.

B.

CE always connects to a P router.

C.

CE always connects to another CE device.

D.

The CE does not connect to the service provider network.

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Question # 12

Which of the following protocols belongs to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two.)

A.

OSPF

B.

BGP

C.

X.500

D.

IS-IS

E.

Ethernet

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Question # 13

Which field in the Routing Information Base (RIB) determines the direction frames will egress the node?

A.

Preference

B.

Metric

C.

Dest prefix

D.

Next-hop

E.

Cost

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Question # 14

How does a VPRN service avoid the problem overlapping IP addresses from different customers?

A.

You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. The service provider must ensure that its customers are all using discrete IP address space.

B.

Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information.

C.

A VPRN will ignore IP addressing information and use MAC addressing instead which are always unique.

D.

A VPRN will translate customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

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Question # 15

Which of the following best describes an Ethernet switch?

A.

A passive device used to connect cables without signal amplification.

B.

A device that receives and retransmits data without Layer 2 header inspection.

C.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 2 destination address.

D.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 3 destination address.

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Question # 16

Which of the following is used for the auto completion of CLI commands in a Nokia 7750 SR?

A.

Type the first few letters of the command, then press Ctrl C.

B.

Type the first few letters of the command, then press Esc.

C.

Type the first few letters of the command, then press Tab.

D.

Type the first few letters of the command, then type ?.

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Question # 17

Which of the following is a characteristic of Link State protocols?

A.

Routers send a copy of their entire routing table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers send frequent periodic updates to the entire network.

C.

Routers know the entire network topology.

D.

Routers use hop-count to calculate their routing tables.

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Question # 18

Which of the following about transactional configuration is FALSE?

A.

Configuration changes are stored in a candidate configuration datastore.

B.

A router uses the running configuration datastore for its operation.

C.

Configuration changes are activated by committing the candidate configuration.

D.

A running configuration datastore consists of multiple candidate configuration datastores.

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Question # 19

Which of the following is NOT a function of the control plane?

A.

Building routing tables using dynamic routing protocols.

B.

Building forwarding tables for the IOMs.

C.

Handling router configuration and management functions.

D.

Processing and forwarding user application traffic.

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Question # 20

How many subnets and host addresses are obtained by subnetting network 201.148.26.0/24 using a /26 subnet mask?

A.

4 subnets, 64 hosts per subnet

B.

8 subnets, 32 hosts per subnet

C.

4 subnets, 62 hosts per subnet

D.

8 subnets, 30 hosts per subnet

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Question # 21

Which of the following enables service providers to support multiple customers with the same VLAN ID over the same backbone?

A.

VLAN Trunking

B.

VLAN Stacking

C.

VLAN Tagging

D.

VLAN Routing

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Question # 22

Which of the following tasks can be performed in the boot options file (BOF)?

A.

Specifying authorization information to control access to the router.

B.

Defining an IP address for the management port.

C.

Provisioning the IOM cards.

D.

Setting the date and time for the system.

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Question # 23

What type of VPN service does a VPRN provide?

A.

Layer 3 direct internet access service

B.

Layer 3 IP routed service

C.

Layer 2 point-to-point service

D.

Layer 2 multipoint service

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Question # 24

Which of the following best describes a hub?

A.

A passive device used to connect cables without signal amplification.

B.

A device that receives and retransmits data without Layer 2 header inspection.

C.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 2 destination address.

D.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 3 destination address.

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Question # 25

Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the Transport Layer in the TCP/IP stack?

A.

Provides a data transport service to higher protocol layers.

B.

Provides a data transport service for routing and control protocols such as OSPF and ICMP.

C.

Provides a universal address plan to uniquely identify every device in the network.

D.

Defines a standard method for framing data for transmission on the physical network medium.

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Question # 26

Which of the following are important to consider when designing IPv4 subnets? (Choose three.)

A.

The number of subnetworks currently required.

B.

The version of the Ethernet used by each segment.

C.

Future network growth requirements.

D.

The number of hosts each subnetwork will support.

E.

The class of the IP address assigned to an organization.

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Question # 27

What metric does a link state protocol use to choose the best path to a destination network?

A.

Link bandwidth.

B.

Round trip time.

C.

Hop count.

D.

Route preference.

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Question # 28

Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of UDP (Select two)?

A.

Provide a connectionless delivery service.

B.

Provide a connection oriented delivery service.

C.

Provide an unreliable transmission service.

D.

Provide a reliable transmission service.

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Question # 29

Which of the following statements regarding TCP is TRUE?

A.

Sequence numbers are used to ensure that the data received is offered to the application in the correct order.

B.

The SYN flag is used to identify congestion in the network.

C.

The NACK flag is set on confirmation segments to acknowledge FCS errors.

D.

The window size is transmitted in all TCP segments to communicate MTU limitations of lower layer protocols to upper layer applications.

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Question # 30

Based on the network diagram (click on exhibit), R2 wants to connect to the networks behind CR1 using a static-route. What is the correct syntax given the choices below? R1 has a valid static-route defined for networks behind CR1.

A.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.1.1.1

C.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1

D.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.1.1.2

E.

none of the above

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Question # 31

Which statement best describes an SDP?

A.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.

B.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the connection of the service to CE device. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.

C.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

D.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the service to CE device. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

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Question # 32

In the diagram, what type of BGP session is established between the routers of AS 2002?

A.

IGP

B.

IBGP

C.

EBGP

D.

EGP

E.

BGP cannot be run between routers in the same AS.

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Question # 33

In an MPLS network, which device is responsible for taking an unlabeled packet and encapsulating it with an MPLS label?

A.

Ingress Label Edge Router

B.

Egress Label Edge Router

C.

Label Switching Router

D.

Next Hop Router

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Question # 34

What is the function of an LSR?

A.

Label Switching Routers make switching decisions based on the original MAC Header.

B.

Label Switching Routers make routing decisions based on the original IP Header.

C.

Label Switching Routers make forwarding decisions based on the MPLS label.

D.

Label Switching Routers make decisions based on ATM header information.

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Question # 35

In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from R7 and then receives another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

A.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

B.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

D.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Question # 36

Host A is transmitting data to host B on a TCP connection. What is the purpose of the ACK sent by host B?

A.

The ACK tells the host A that host B wishes to establish a session.

B.

The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the segment that was just received by host B.

C.

The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the next segment that host B expects to see.

D.

The ACK is flow control from host B and tells host A to reduce its transmission rate.

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Question # 37

How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire?

A.

ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical separation of traffic.

B.

ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or traffic type on the same physical wire.

C.

ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create logical separation of traffic.

D.

ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create logical separation of traffic.

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Question # 38

With a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below are valid host addresses? (Choose all that apply)

A.

17.23.119.63

B.

87.99.12.159

C.

95.11.22.93

D.

192.11.25.87

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Question # 39

When a device in an IP network receives an echo request message that is destined for itself, it then:

A.

Estimates the round trip-time.

B.

Generates an echo reply.

C.

Calculates the data loss statistics.

D.

Verifies the data field of the message.

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Question # 40

Which of the following IP header fields contains information that indicates whether routers are allowed to fragment a packet?

A.

Header checksum.

B.

Fragmentation offset.

C.

Flags.

D.

Identification.

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Question # 41

Which three of the following are important considerations when designing subnets? (Choose three.)

A.

Number of subnetworks currently required.

B.

Type of physical connectivity used by each segment.

C.

Future network growth requirements.

D.

Number of hosts each subnetwork will support.

E.

Class of the network address to be used for the network.

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Question # 42

Which field in the IP routing table contains the name or address of the neighbour that advertised the prefix to the router?

A.

Preference.

B.

Metric.

C.

Dest prefix.

D.

Next hop.

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Question # 43

Who was responsible for developing and publishing the original standard that was used for 10 Mbit/s Ethernet?

A.

Intel Corporation.

B.

Digital Equipment Corporation.

C.

DEC-Intel-Xerox.

D.

Apple Computer.

E.

IBM.

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Question # 44

Which of the following describes the Nokia 7750 SR Input/Output Module (IOM)?

A.

Small optical module available in a variety of formats.

B.

Contains a CPU for managing the forwarding hardware in each flexible fast path.

C.

Converts traffic from an external standard format to an internal format.

D.

Contains the CPU that runs the routing protocol software as well as the switch fabric.

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Question # 45

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the development of the OSI Reference Model?

A.

OSI was developed as an alternative, open standard to IBMs SNA model.

B.

OSI protocols were no longer used after TCP/IP was developed.

C.

OSI model is much simpler than TCP/IP.

D.

OSI model is maintained exclusively by the IETF.

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Question # 46

What is required if devices on different VLANs wish to communicate with each other?

A.

Devices on different VLANs cannot communicate with each other.

B.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as they are connected to the same switch.

C.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as the switches they are attached to are connected to each other with an Ethernet connection.

D.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other if there is an IP router to connect the VLANs.

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Question # 47

To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer?

A.

Application Layer.

B.

Transport Layer.

C.

IP Layer.

D.

Data Link Layer

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Question # 48

Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one customers traffic from that of another?

A.

The provider edge (PE) switch adds an additional field called a PE tag to the customers Layer 2 data.

B.

The PE switch replaces the customers VLAN tag with a carrier-assigned tag.

C.

The PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customers traffic on the carriers network.

D.

The PE switch assigns a customer-specific priority label to the customers traffic.

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Question # 49

Which of the following user interface sessions are accessible through Telnet and Secure Shell (SSH) on the Nokia 7750 SR and 7450 ESS?

A.

Graphic User Interface (GUI).

B.

Node Management Terminal Interface (NMTI).

C.

Command Line Interface (CLI).

D.

All of the above.

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Question # 50

Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:

A.

Secure transmission of information.

B.

Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.

C.

Allowing remote logins.

D.

Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.

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Question # 51

The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?

A.

4 subnets, 64 hosts

B.

64 subnets, 4 hosts

C.

4 subnets, 62 hosts

D.

64 subnets, 2 hosts

E.

6 subnets, 30 hosts

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Question # 52

A network administrator is creating a subnet plan for the address 172.16.0.0/16. The network must support 459 hosts on each subnet while providing the maximum number of subnets. What subnet mask should be used?

A.

255.255.0.0

B.

255.255.128.0

C.

255.255.224.0

D.

255.255.254.0

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