Explanat ion:

The correct answer is the index value times the contract size, in this case 1500 x 50.

One way to think about index futures is this: Consider equity index trading as trading in the shares of a company whose share price is equal to a number of dollars which is the same as the index. If the ' contract multiplier ' for a index futures contract is 50, that means the futures contract is for 50 shares of such a fictitious company. Therefore the notional value of the contract will be 15000 x 50, and Choice ' a ' is the correct answer.

As a bond approaches maturity, its value will be driven less by the time value of money or its coupons, and more by its redemption value, ie the par. Therefore as maturity approaches, its value converges to its par value and this phenomenon is called pull to par.

The riskiest tranche of a structured product is called the equity tranche. All other choices are incorrect.

Since the equity portfolio has a beta of 1.5, we need to sell short enough number of futures contracts as to have $1 x 1.5 = $1.5m short in notional. The value of one S & P futures contract is 1000 x 250 = $250,000, and therefore in order to be short $1.5m, we need to sell 6 contracts.

' In store ' delivery is for delivery in a standardized location, and the buyer is handed a ' warrant ' that allows him to pick the goods up. This is the cheapest means of physical delivery. The other prices will be higher as they involve more costs for the seller who has to get the goods on board a ship, or to the docks, or insurance and freight as well. Choice ' c ' is the correct answer.

Since Macaulay duration is 6 years, the modified duration is 6/(1+5%) = 5.71. This means that if interest rates were to rise by 1%, the bond price would decrease by 5.71%. Since interest rates have risen by 10 bps, (100bps = 1%), the bond ' s price would fall by roughly 0.571%, or 57 basis points

On-the-run bonds yield less, and therefore are priced higher than similar off-the-run bonds. The difference in their pricing reflects the fact that on-the-run bonds are more liquid than off-the-run bonds. Therefore statements I and II are correct. Bonds are on-the-run when they are issued, and change hands frequently, and over time as they become ' seasoned ' , newer bonds take their place as on-the-run bonds making them off-the-run.

Strips are zero coupon instruments, and do not carry any coupon. Therefore statement III is not correct.

A lower bid-ask or bid-offer spread indicates lower transaction costs and is a result of greater liquidity. A higher bid-ask spread results for less liquid securities. Therefore statement IV is not correct.

The bond equivalent yield for a treasury bill can be calculated as [(Future value - Present value)/Present value x 365/days to maturity]. In this case this works out to ($100-$98)/$98 * 365/90 = 8.28%

[Why do we use 365 days and not 360? And is there a different way to calculate treasury bill yields?

The answer to this question is that there are alternate ways to calculate these yields. For the exam, I would suggest that you calculate according to one method, see if you get an answer that matches, and pick that. I found the below on the NY Fed ' s website - a very clear example: (http://newyorkfed.org/aboutthefed/fedpoint/fed28.html)

The Discount Yield Method

The following formula is used to determine the discount yield for T-bills that have three- or six-month maturities:

Discount yield = [(FV - PP)/FV] * [360/M]

FV = face value

PP = purchase price

M = maturity of bill. For a three-month T-bill (13 weeks) use 91, and for a six-month T-bill (26 weeks) use 182

360 = the number of days used by banks to determine short-term interest rates (the investment yield method is based on a calendar year: 365 days, or 366 in leap years).

Example

What is the discount yield for a 182-day T-bill, auctioned at an average price of $9,659.30 per $10,000 face value?

Discount yield = [(FV - PP)/FV] * [360/M]

FV = $10,000 PP = $9,659.30 M = 182

Discount yield = [(10,000) - (9,659.30)] / (10,000) * [360/182]

Discount yield = [340.7 / 10,000] * [1.978022]

Discount yield = .0673912 = 6.74%

For the 13-week bill, the same formula would be used, dividing 360 by a maturity of 91 days rather than 182 days.

The Investment Yield Method

When comparing the return on investment in T-bills to other short-term investment options, the investment yield method can be used. This yield is alternatively called the bond equivalent yield, the coupon equivalent rate, the effective yield and the interest yield.

The following formula is used to calculate the investment yield for T-bills that have three- or six-month maturities:

Investment yield = [(FV - PP)/PP] * [365 or 366/M]

Example

What is the investment yield of a 182-day T-bill, auctioned at an average price of $9,659.30 per $10,000 face value?

Investment yield = [(FV - PP)/PP] * [365/M]

FV = $10,000 PP = $9,659.30 M = 182

Investment yield = [(10,000 - 9,659.30) / (9,659.30)] * [365/182]

Investment yield = [340.70] / 9,659.30] * [2.0054945]

Investment yield = .0707372 = 7.07%

For the 13-week bill, the same formula can be used, dividing 365 (or 366) by a maturity of 91 days.

An m x n FRA is an agreement to borrow money for a period starting at time m and ending at time n at the contracted rate. Therefore, the buyer of the 3 x 6 FRA has committed to borrow $1m at the beginning of 3 months and return it at the end of 6 months, ie a total borrowing period of 3 months at a rate of 5%. Of course, the $1m is never actually exchanged, and at the beginning of the 3 month period when the next three months ' interest rate is known (6%), the parties merely exchange the difference in the interest. SInce this interest was only due at the end of the 6 months and is being exchanged at the 3 month time point, it will have to be discounted to its present value.

The correct answer to this question is =(1,000,000 * (6% - 5%) * 3/12)/(1 + (6%*3/12))=$2463.05. Since interest rates rose, the borrower gained as he has the right to borrow at a lower rate, and therefore the seller will pay the borrower.

(Here:

- $1m is the notional

- 6% - 5% represents the difference between the contracted and the realized interest rates

- 3/12 is the 3 month period from month 3 to 6

- Finally, we divide by the current interest rate for 3 months to present value the payment from month 6 to month 3)

The transformation line represents the various possible combinations of the ' risky bundle ' and the risk free asset. Investors can choose different combinations of the risky and risk-free asset depending upon their risk appetite. The transformation line meets the y-axis (portfolio returns) at the point equal to the risk free rate. Choice ' a ' is the correct answer and the rest are incorrect.

The highest possible transformation line, ie the transformation line with the maximum slope, is the transformation line joining the risk free rate on the y-axis and the portfolio with the maximum Sharpe ratio on the efficient frontier. This line is called the ' capital markets line ' . Investors can pick any point on this line according to their risk appetite, and doing so would maximize the return they can obtain for their desired level of risk. The capital markets line is tangential to the efficient frontier. The Sharpe ratio stays constant throughout the CML.

Remember that the transformation line and the capital markets lines are different from each other - there is only one CML for an efficient frontier, whereas there can be multiple transformation lines.