Since $100 is convertible into two shares, the price upon conversion per share is $50, which is the same as the current share price. Therefore there is no premium, and Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

The effectiveness of the hedge is solely determined by the correlation between the position being hedged, and the position being used as the hedge. A hedge can be perfect when correlation is 1, and will be less than perfect when it is anything other than 1. The effectiveness of the optimal hedge is given by the formula  √(1-ρ 2 ) , where  ρ  is the correlation between the two. Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer. Standard deviations affect the hedge ratio, not the effectiveness of the hedge.

(Note: In other texts, hedge effectiveness is explained to be measured by  ρ 2 , which is essentially the same as  √(1-ρ 2 ) , both expressions being functions of  ρ . You can use either, being aware that one measures the variance explained, and the other is a measure of the unexplained variance.)

The delivery price of a futures contract is given by Se^(rt), just as in the case of a forward contract. However, a key difference is that a forward is settled at maturity whereas a futures contract pays out the P & L daily. So if the spot price increases from S to δS, the holder of a futures contract immediately receives the change in the delivery price without any discounting to the present. That is, the holder of the futures contract receives (S + δS)e^(rt) - Se^(rt) = δSe^(rt) right away. Therefore the delta of a futures contract is e^rt, which given positive non-zero values of r and t can only be greater than zero.

Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer. Note the difference from a forward contract where this difference is not received till the delivery date, therefore making the delta of the forward contract to be equal to 1.

https://riskprep.com/images/stories/questions/102.06.a.png  is the coefficient of risk aversion at x. Its inverse, ie  https://riskprep.com/images/stories/questions/102.06.b.png , is called the coefficient of risk tolerance.

Risk aversion or risk tolerance is indicated in a utility function by its curvature. A concave utility function indicates risk aversion and a convex function indicates risk tolerance. The curvature is measured as a ratio of the second derivative to the first derivative of a function. A negative second derivative implies concavity. The expression is the coefficient of risk aversion, and its inverse, which is in the same units as wealth, is called the coefficient of risk tolerance.

The zero coupon spot rate for 4 years can be calculated as = (1.02*1.03*1.04*1.05)^(1/4) - 1 = 3.49%, which is the correct answer. (3.50% is just the mathematical average of the rates for the four years and is not correct, even though close.)

Forward currency rates can be calculated as Spot rate x (1 + rate in domestic currency)/(1 + rate in foreign currency), where the spot rate is the 'direct' rate. Direct rates are rates that are expressed as the number of domestic currency units that it takes to buy 1 unit of the foreign currency. In this case, considering the US the domestic currency, then the forward rate is given by 0.7 * 1.02/1.035 = 0.6899. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.