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Question # 4

What would be the MOST cost effective solution for a Disaster Recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours?

A.

Warm site

B.

Hot site

C.

Mirror site

D.

Cold site

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Question # 5

What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved?

A.

Take the computer to a forensic lab

B.

Make a copy of the hard drive

C.

Start documenting

D.

Turn off the computer

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Question # 6

Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations?

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Simulation

C.

Parallel

D.

White box

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Question # 7

Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?

A.

Hardware and software compatibility issues

B.

Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance

C.

Budget constraints and requirements

D.

Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives

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Question # 8

A Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide which of the following?

A.

Guaranteed recovery of all business functions

B.

Minimization of the need decision making during a crisis

C.

Insurance against litigation following a disaster

D.

Protection from loss of organization resources

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Question # 9

A Virtual Machine (VM) environment has five guest Operating Systems (OS) and provides strong isolation. What MUST an administrator review to audit a user’s access to data files?

A.

Host VM monitor audit logs

B.

Guest OS access controls

C.

Host VM access controls

D.

Guest OS audit logs

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Question # 10

Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations?

A.

Change management processes

B.

User administration procedures

C.

Operating System (OS) baselines

D.

System backup documentation

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Question # 11

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure?

A.

Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken

B.

Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability

C.

Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization

D.

Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels

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Question # 12

Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system?

A.

Encryption of audit logs

B.

No archiving of audit logs

C.

Hashing of audit logs

D.

Remote access audit logs

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Question # 13

In which of the following programs is it MOST important to include the collection of security process data?

A.

Quarterly access reviews

B.

Security continuous monitoring

C.

Business continuity testing

D.

Annual security training

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Question # 14

Which one of the following affects the classification of data?

A.

Assigned security label

B.

Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture

C.

Minimum query size

D.

Passage of time

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Question # 15

Which of the following is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) based access cards?

A.

Personal Identity Verification (PIV)

B.

Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication

C.

Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection

D.

Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response

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Question # 16

An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests.

Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Identity as a Service (IDaaS)

C.

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 17

Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?

A.

Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity

B.

Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving

C.

Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security

D.

Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization

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Question # 18

Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department?

A.

The department should report to the business owner

B.

Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed

C.

Individual accountability should be ensured

D.

All members should be trained on their responsibilities

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Question # 19

In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the

A.

system security managers

B.

business managers

C.

Information Technology (IT) managers

D.

end users

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Question # 20

Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system?

A.

Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations

B.

Understand the value of the information assets

C.

Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management

D.

Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements

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Question # 21

When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity?

A.

The process will require too many resources

B.

It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software

C.

It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data

D.

The process will be perceived as having value

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Question # 22

An organization has outsourced its financial transaction processing to a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) who will provide them with Software as a Service (SaaS). If there was a data breach who is responsible for monetary losses?

A.

The Data Protection Authority (DPA)

B.

The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

C.

The application developers

D.

The data owner

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Question # 23

Which of the following is the BEST Identity-as-a-Service (IDaaS) solution for validating users?

A.

Single Sign-On (SSO)

B.

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

C.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

D.

Open Authentication (OAuth)

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Question # 24

What does a Synchronous (SYN) flood attack do?

A.

Forces Transmission Control Protocol /Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections into a reset state

B.

Establishes many new Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections

C.

Empties the queue of pending Transmission Control Protocol /Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) requests

D.

Exceeds the limits for new Transmission Control Protocol /Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections

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Question # 25

Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 (EAP-MD5) only provides which of the following?

A.

Mutual authentication

B.

Server authentication

C.

User authentication

D.

Streaming ciphertext data

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Question # 26

Match the name of access control model with its associated restriction.

Drag each access control model to its appropriate restriction access on the right.

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Question # 27

Which security modes is MOST commonly used in a commercial environment because it protects the integrity

of financial and accounting data?

A.

Biba

B.

Graham-Denning

C.

Clark-Wilson

D.

Beil-LaPadula

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Question # 28

In an organization where Network Access Control (NAC) has been deployed, a device trying to connect to the network is being placed into an isolated domain. What could be done on this device in order to obtain proper

connectivity?

A.

Connect the device to another network jack

B.

Apply remediation’s according to security requirements

C.

Apply Operating System (OS) patches

D.

Change the Message Authentication Code (MAC) address of the network interface

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Question # 29

After following the processes defined within the change management plan, a super user has upgraded a

device within an Information system.

What step would be taken to ensure that the upgrade did NOT affect the network security posture?

A.

Conduct an Assessment and Authorization (A&A)

B.

Conduct a security impact analysis

C.

Review the results of the most recent vulnerability scan

D.

Conduct a gap analysis with the baseline configuration

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Question # 30

Attack trees are MOST useful for which of the following?

A.

Determining system security scopes

B.

Generating attack libraries

C.

Enumerating threats

D.

Evaluating Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

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Question # 31

Which of the following is the MOST effective method to mitigate Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks?

A.

Use Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.

Whitelist input validation

C.

Require client certificates

D.

Validate data output

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Question # 32

Which of the following MUST be scalable to address security concerns raised by the integration of third-party

identity services?

A.

Mandatory Access Controls (MAC)

B.

Enterprise security architecture

C.

Enterprise security procedures

D.

Role Based Access Controls (RBAC)

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Question # 33

A company receives an email threat informing of an Imminent Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack

targeting its web application, unless ransom is paid. Which of the following techniques BEST addresses that threat?

A.

Deploying load balancers to distribute inbound traffic across multiple data centers

B.

Set Up Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) to filter out malicious traffic

C.

Implementing reverse web-proxies to validate each new inbound connection

D.

Coordinate with and utilize capabilities within Internet Service Provider (ISP)

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Question # 34

When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid?

A.

When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager

B.

When it has been validated by the board of directors

C.

When it has been validated by all threat scenarios

D.

When it has been validated by realistic exercises

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Question # 35

A continuous information security-monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following?

A.

Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies

B.

Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts

C.

Encompassing people, process, and technology

D.

Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes

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Question # 36

What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management?

A.

Certify and approve releases to the environment

B.

Provide version rollbacks for system changes

C.

Ensure that all applications are approved

D.

Ensure accountability for changes to the environment

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Question # 37

With what frequency should monitoring of a control occur when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions?

A.

Continuously without exception for all security controls

B.

Before and after each change of the control

C.

At a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control

D.

Only during system implementation and decommissioning

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Question # 38

Which of the following is the FIRST step in the incident response process?

A.

Determine the cause of the incident

B.

Disconnect the system involved from the network

C.

Isolate and contain the system involved

D.

Investigate all symptoms to confirm the incident

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Question # 39

Intellectual property rights are PRIMARY concerned with which of the following?

A.

Owner’s ability to realize financial gain

B.

Owner’s ability to maintain copyright

C.

Right of the owner to enjoy their creation

D.

Right of the owner to control delivery method

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Question # 40

Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas?

A.

Install mantraps at the building entrances

B.

Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic

C.

Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public

D.

Hire a guard to protect the public area

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Question # 41

What is the MOST important consideration from a data security perspective when an organization plans to relocate?

A.

Ensure the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel

B.

Review the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present

C.

Conduct a gap analysis of a new facilities against existing security requirements

D.

Revise the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan

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Question # 42

All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that

A.

determine the risk of a business interruption occurring

B.

determine the technological dependence of the business processes

C.

Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption

D.

Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption

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Question # 43

A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning (BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with?

A.

Application

B.

Storage

C.

Power

D.

Network

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Question # 44

Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?

A.

Examine the device for physical tampering

B.

Implement more stringent baseline configurations

C.

Purge or re-image the hard disk drive

D.

Change access codes

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Question # 45

Which of the following represents the GREATEST risk to data confidentiality?

A.

Network redundancies are not implemented

B.

Security awareness training is not completed

C.

Backup tapes are generated unencrypted

D.

Users have administrative privileges

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Question # 46

When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and 27002, when can management responsibilities be defined?

A.

Only when assets are clearly defined

B.

Only when standards are defined

C.

Only when controls are put in place

D.

Only procedures are defined

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Question # 47

An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on which PRIMARY elements?

A.

Development, testing, and deployment

B.

Prevention, detection, and remediation

C.

People, technology, and operations

D.

Certification, accreditation, and monitoring

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Question # 48

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.

Given the number of priorities, which of the following will MOST likely influence the selection of top initiatives?

A.

Severity of risk

B.

Complexity of strategy

C.

Frequency of incidents

D.

Ongoing awareness

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Question # 49

Which of the following provides effective management assurance for a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)?

A.

Maintaining an inventory of authorized Access Points (AP) and connecting devices

B.

Setting the radio frequency to the minimum range required

C.

Establishing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel between the WLAN client device and a VPN concentrator

D.

Verifying that all default passwords have been changed

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Question # 50

What do Capability Maturity Models (CMM) serve as a benchmark for in an organization?

A.

Experience in the industry

B.

Definition of security profiles

C.

Human resource planning efforts

D.

Procedures in systems development

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Question # 51

When is security personnel involvement in the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) process MOST beneficial?

A.

Testing phase

B.

Development phase

C.

Requirements definition phase

D.

Operations and maintenance phase

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Question # 52

An organization's data policy MUST include a data retention period which is based on

A.

application dismissal.

B.

business procedures.

C.

digital certificates expiration.

D.

regulatory compliance.

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Question # 53

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.

Which of the following could have MOST likely prevented the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) program from being installed on the computer?

A.

Removing employee's full access to the computer

B.

Supervising their child's use of the computer

C.

Limiting computer's access to only the employee

D.

Ensuring employee understands their business conduct guidelines

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Question # 54

If an attacker in a SYN flood attack uses someone else's valid host address as the source address, the system under attack will send a large number of Synchronize/Acknowledge (SYN/ACK) packets to the

A.

default gateway.

B.

attacker's address.

C.

local interface being attacked.

D.

specified source address.

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Question # 55

Which of the following methods provides the MOST protection for user credentials?

A.

Forms-based authentication

B.

Digest authentication

C.

Basic authentication

D.

Self-registration

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Question # 56

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider’s facility. This provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer-based applications used by the organization.

What additional considerations are there if the third party is located in a different country?

A.

The organizational structure of the third party and how it may impact timelines within the organization

B.

The ability of the third party to respond to the organization in a timely manner and with accurate information

C.

The effects of transborder data flows and customer expectations regarding the storage or processing of their data

D.

The quantity of data that must be provided to the third party and how it is to be used

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Question # 57

What is the PRIMARY advantage of using automated application security testing tools?

A.

The application can be protected in the production environment.

B.

Large amounts of code can be tested using fewer resources.

C.

The application will fail less when tested using these tools.

D.

Detailed testing of code functions can be performed.

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Question # 58

For a service provider, which of the following MOST effectively addresses confidentiality concerns for customers using cloud computing?

A.

Hash functions

B.

Data segregation

C.

File system permissions

D.

Non-repudiation controls

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Question # 59

Which of the following is the MOST crucial for a successful audit plan?

A.

Defining the scope of the audit to be performed

B.

Identifying the security controls to be implemented

C.

Working with the system owner on new controls

D.

Acquiring evidence of systems that are not compliant

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Question # 60

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

An organization experiencing a negative financial impact is forced to reduce budgets and the number of Information Technology (IT) operations staff performing basic logical access security administration functions. Security processes have been tightly integrated into normal IT operations and are not separate and distinct roles.

Which of the following will be the PRIMARY security concern as staff is released from the organization?

A.

Inadequate IT support

B.

Loss of data and separation of duties

C.

Undocumented security controls

D.

Additional responsibilities for remaining staff

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Question # 61

An organization publishes and periodically updates its employee policies in a file on their intranet. Which of the following is a PRIMARY security concern?

A.

Availability

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Integrity

D.

Ownership

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Question # 62

Place the following information classification steps in sequential order.

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Question # 63

What is the MOST important reason to configure unique user IDs?

A.

Supporting accountability

B.

Reducing authentication errors

C.

Preventing password compromise

D.

Supporting Single Sign On (SSO)

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Question # 64

What is a common challenge when implementing Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) for identity integration between on-premise environment and an external identity provider service?

A.

Some users are not provisioned into the service.

B.

SAML tokens are provided by the on-premise identity provider.

C.

Single users cannot be revoked from the service.

D.

SAML tokens contain user information.

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Question # 65

Which of the following secure startup mechanisms are PRIMARILY designed to thwart attacks?

A.

Timing

B.

Cold boot

C.

Side channel

D.

Acoustic cryptanalysis

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Question # 66

Which of the following is the BEST reason to review audit logs periodically?

A.

Verify they are operating properly

B.

Monitor employee productivity

C.

Identify anomalies in use patterns

D.

Meet compliance regulations

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Question # 67

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

An organization experiencing a negative financial impact is forced to reduce budgets and the number of Information Technology (IT) operations staff performing basic logical access security administration functions. Security processes have been tightly integrated into normal IT operations and are not separate and distinct roles.

Which of the following will indicate where the IT budget is BEST allocated during this time?

A.

Policies

B.

Frameworks

C.

Metrics

D.

Guidelines

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Question # 68

Which of the following is a MAJOR consideration in implementing a Voice over IP (VoIP) network?

A.

Use of a unified messaging.

B.

Use of separation for the voice network.

C.

Use of Network Access Control (NAC) on switches.

D.

Use of Request for Comments (RFC) 1918 addressing.

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Question # 69

A risk assessment report recommends upgrading all perimeter firewalls to mitigate a particular finding. Which of the following BEST supports this recommendation?

A.

The inherent risk is greater than the residual risk.

B.

The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) approaches zero.

C.

The expected loss from the risk exceeds mitigation costs.

D.

The infrastructure budget can easily cover the upgrade costs.

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Question # 70

Which of the following is a process within a Systems Engineering Life Cycle (SELC) stage?

A.

Requirements Analysis

B.

Development and Deployment

C.

Production Operations

D.

Utilization Support

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Question # 71

An organization decides to implement a partial Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) with only the servers having digital certificates. What is the security benefit of this implementation?

A.

Clients can authenticate themselves to the servers.

B.

Mutual authentication is available between the clients and servers.

C.

Servers are able to issue digital certificates to the client.

D.

Servers can authenticate themselves to the client.

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Question # 72

Which of the following violates identity and access management best practices?

A.

User accounts

B.

System accounts

C.

Generic accounts

D.

Privileged accounts

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Question # 73

What is the BEST first step for determining if the appropriate security controls are in place for protecting data at rest?

A.

Identify regulatory requirements

B.

Conduct a risk assessment

C.

Determine business drivers

D.

Review the security baseline configuration

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Question # 74

According to best practice, which of the following groups is the MOST effective in performing an information security compliance audit?

A.

In-house security administrators

B.

In-house Network Team

C.

Disaster Recovery (DR) Team

D.

External consultants

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Question # 75

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

An organization experiencing a negative financial impact is forced to reduce budgets and the number of Information Technology (IT) operations staff performing basic logical access security administration functions. Security processes have been tightly integrated into normal IT operations and are not separate and distinct roles.

When determining appropriate resource allocation, which of the following is MOST important to monitor?

A.

Number of system compromises

B.

Number of audit findings

C.

Number of staff reductions

D.

Number of additional assets

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Question # 76

What component of a web application that stores the session state in a cookie an attacker can bypass?

A.

An initialization check

B.

An identification check

C.

An authentication check

D.

An authorization check

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Question # 77

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns.

What MUST the plan include in order to reduce client-side exploitation?

A.

Approved web browsers

B.

Network firewall procedures

C.

Proxy configuration

D.

Employee education

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Question # 78

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

Desktop computers in an organization were sanitized for re-use in an equivalent security environment. The data was destroyed in accordance with organizational policy and all marking and other external indications of the sensitivity of the data that was formerly stored on the magnetic drives were removed.

Organizational policy requires the deletion of user data from Personal Digital Assistant (PDA) devices before disposal. It may not be possible to delete the user data if the device is malfunctioning. Which destruction method below provides the BEST assurance that the data has been removed?

A.

Knurling

B.

Grinding

C.

Shredding

D.

Degaussing

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Question # 79

Which of the following is the MOST effective attack against cryptographic hardware modules?

A.

Plaintext

B.

Brute force

C.

Power analysis

D.

Man-in-the-middle (MITM)

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Question # 80

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

During the investigation of a security incident, it is determined that an unauthorized individual accessed a system which hosts a database containing financial information.

Aside from the potential records which may have been viewed, which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern regarding the database information?

A.

Unauthorized database changes

B.

Integrity of security logs

C.

Availability of the database

D.

Confidentiality of the incident

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Question # 81

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of a formalized information classification program?

A.

It drives audit processes.

B.

It supports risk assessment.

C.

It reduces asset vulnerabilities.

D.

It minimizes system logging requirements.

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Question # 82

Which of the following is a BEST practice when traveling internationally with laptops containing Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?

A.

Use a thumb drive to transfer information from a foreign computer.

B.

Do not take unnecessary information, including sensitive information.

C.

Connect the laptop only to well-known networks like the hotel or public Internet cafes.

D.

Request international points of contact help scan the laptop on arrival to ensure it is protected.

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Question # 83

Why is a system's criticality classification important in large organizations?

A.

It provides for proper prioritization and scheduling of security and maintenance tasks.

B.

It reduces critical system support workload and reduces the time required to apply patches.

C.

It allows for clear systems status communications to executive management.

D.

It provides for easier determination of ownership, reducing confusion as to the status of the asset.

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Question # 84

Which of the following is a potential risk when a program runs in privileged mode?

A.

It may serve to create unnecessary code complexity

B.

It may not enforce job separation duties

C.

It may create unnecessary application hardening

D.

It may allow malicious code to be inserted

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Question # 85

Why must all users be positively identified prior to using multi-user computers?

A.

To provide access to system privileges

B.

To provide access to the operating system

C.

To ensure that unauthorized persons cannot access the computers

D.

To ensure that management knows what users are currently logged on

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Question # 86

Which of the following is an essential element of a privileged identity lifecycle management?

A.

Regularly perform account re-validation and approval

B.

Account provisioning based on multi-factor authentication

C.

Frequently review performed activities and request justification

D.

Account information to be provided by supervisor or line manager

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Question # 87

Copyright provides protection for which of the following?

A.

Ideas expressed in literary works

B.

A particular expression of an idea

C.

New and non-obvious inventions

D.

Discoveries of natural phenomena

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Question # 88

Which of the following is considered best practice for preventing e-mail spoofing?

A.

Spam filtering

B.

Cryptographic signature

C.

Uniform Resource Locator (URL) filtering

D.

Reverse Domain Name Service (DNS) lookup

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Question # 89

Which of the following actions should be performed when implementing a change to a database schema in a production system?

A.

Test in development, determine dates, notify users, and implement in production

B.

Apply change to production, run in parallel, finalize change in production, and develop a back-out strategy

C.

Perform user acceptance testing in production, have users sign off, and finalize change

D.

Change in development, perform user acceptance testing, develop a back-out strategy, and implement change

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Question # 90

Alternate encoding such as hexadecimal representations is MOST often observed in which of the following forms of attack?

A.

Smurf

B.

Rootkit exploit

C.

Denial of Service (DoS)

D.

Cross site scripting (XSS)

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Question # 91

As one component of a physical security system, an Electronic Access Control (EAC) token is BEST known for its ability to

A.

overcome the problems of key assignments.

B.

monitor the opening of windows and doors.

C.

trigger alarms when intruders are detected.

D.

lock down a facility during an emergency.

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Question # 92

Which one of the following is a threat related to the use of web-based client side input validation?

A.

Users would be able to alter the input after validation has occurred

B.

The web server would not be able to validate the input after transmission

C.

The client system could receive invalid input from the web server

D.

The web server would not be able to receive invalid input from the client

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Question # 93

An engineer in a software company has created a virus creation tool. The tool can generate thousands of polymorphic viruses. The engineer is planning to use the tool in a controlled environment to test the company's next generation virus scanning software. Which would BEST describe the behavior of the engineer and why?

A.

The behavior is ethical because the tool will be used to create a better virus scanner.

B.

The behavior is ethical because any experienced programmer could create such a tool.

C.

The behavior is not ethical because creating any kind of virus is bad.

D.

The behavior is not ethical because such a tool could be leaked on the Internet.

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Question # 94

Which one of the following considerations has the LEAST impact when considering transmission security?

A.

Network availability

B.

Data integrity

C.

Network bandwidth

D.

Node locations

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Question # 95

Which of the following is an appropriate source for test data?

A.

Production data that is secured and maintained only in the production environment.

B.

Test data that has no similarities to production datA.

C.

Test data that is mirrored and kept up-to-date with production datA.

D.

Production data that has been sanitized before loading into a test environment.

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Question # 96

Including a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in the design of a computer system is an example of a technique to what?

A.

Interface with the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

B.

Improve the quality of security software

C.

Prevent Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

D.

Establish a secure initial state

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Question # 97

Why MUST a Kerberos server be well protected from unauthorized access?

A.

It contains the keys of all clients.

B.

It always operates at root privilege.

C.

It contains all the tickets for services.

D.

It contains the Internet Protocol (IP) address of all network entities.

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Question # 98

The use of strong authentication, the encryption of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) on database servers, application security reviews, and the encryption of data transmitted across networks provide

A.

data integrity.

B.

defense in depth.

C.

data availability.

D.

non-repudiation.

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Question # 99

The three PRIMARY requirements for a penetration test are

A.

A defined goal, limited time period, and approval of management

B.

A general objective, unlimited time, and approval of the network administrator

C.

An objective statement, disclosed methodology, and fixed cost

D.

A stated objective, liability waiver, and disclosed methodology

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Question # 100

To prevent inadvertent disclosure of restricted information, which of the following would be the LEAST effective process for eliminating data prior to the media being discarded?

A.

Multiple-pass overwriting

B.

Degaussing

C.

High-level formatting

D.

Physical destruction

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Question # 101

The stringency of an Information Technology (IT) security assessment will be determined by the

A.

system's past security record.

B.

size of the system's database.

C.

sensitivity of the system's datA.

D.

age of the system.

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Question # 102

In a basic SYN flood attack, what is the attacker attempting to achieve?

A.

Exceed the threshold limit of the connection queue for a given service

B.

Set the threshold to zero for a given service

C.

Cause the buffer to overflow, allowing root access

D.

Flush the register stack, allowing hijacking of the root account

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Question # 103

A practice that permits the owner of a data object to grant other users access to that object would usually provide

A.

Mandatory Access Control (MAC).

B.

owner-administered control.

C.

owner-dependent access control.

D.

Discretionary Access Control (DAC).

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Question # 104

Which of the following BEST represents the principle of open design?

A.

Disassembly, analysis, or reverse engineering will reveal the security functionality of the computer system.

B.

Algorithms must be protected to ensure the security and interoperability of the designed system.

C.

A knowledgeable user should have limited privileges on the system to prevent their ability to compromise security capabilities.

D.

The security of a mechanism should not depend on the secrecy of its design or implementation.

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Question # 105

Multi-threaded applications are more at risk than single-threaded applications to

A.

race conditions.

B.

virus infection.

C.

packet sniffing.

D.

database injection.

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Question # 106

The overall goal of a penetration test is to determine a system's

A.

ability to withstand an attack.

B.

capacity management.

C.

error recovery capabilities.

D.

reliability under stress.

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Question # 107

Which of the following is the MAIN reason that system re-certification and re-accreditation are needed?

A.

To assist data owners in making future sensitivity and criticality determinations

B.

To assure the software development team that all security issues have been addressed

C.

To verify that security protection remains acceptable to the organizational security policy

D.

To help the security team accept or reject new systems for implementation and production

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Question # 108

The goal of software assurance in application development is to

A.

enable the development of High Availability (HA) systems.

B.

facilitate the creation of Trusted Computing Base (TCB) systems.

C.

prevent the creation of vulnerable applications.

D.

encourage the development of open source applications.

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Question # 109

The BEST method of demonstrating a company's security level to potential customers is

A.

a report from an external auditor.

B.

responding to a customer's security questionnaire.

C.

a formal report from an internal auditor.

D.

a site visit by a customer's security team.

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Question # 110

Which of the following does Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) support?

A.

Multicast and broadcast messages

B.

Coordination of IEEE 802.11 protocols

C.

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) systems

D.

Synchronization of multiple devices

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Question # 111

Which of the following is a limitation of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) as it relates to conducting code review?

A.

It has normalized severity ratings.

B.

It has many worksheets and practices to implement.

C.

It aims to calculate the risk of published vulnerabilities.

D.

It requires a robust risk management framework to be put in place.

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Question # 112

An advantage of link encryption in a communications network is that it

A.

makes key management and distribution easier.

B.

protects data from start to finish through the entire network.

C.

improves the efficiency of the transmission.

D.

encrypts all information, including headers and routing information.

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Question # 113

Which of the following is the BEST way to verify the integrity of a software patch?

A.

Cryptographic checksums

B.

Version numbering

C.

Automatic updates

D.

Vendor assurance

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Question # 114

An auditor carrying out a compliance audit requests passwords that are encrypted in the system to verify that the passwords are compliant with policy. Which of the following is the BEST response to the auditor?

A.

Provide the encrypted passwords and analysis tools to the auditor for analysis.

B.

Analyze the encrypted passwords for the auditor and show them the results.

C.

Demonstrate that non-compliant passwords cannot be created in the system.

D.

Demonstrate that non-compliant passwords cannot be encrypted in the system.

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Question # 115

An organization is designing a large enterprise-wide document repository system. They plan to have several different classification level areas with increasing levels of controls. The BEST way to ensure document confidentiality in the repository is to

A.

encrypt the contents of the repository and document any exceptions to that requirement.

B.

utilize Intrusion Detection System (IDS) set drop connections if too many requests for documents are detected.

C.

keep individuals with access to high security areas from saving those documents into lower security areas.

D.

require individuals with access to the system to sign Non-Disclosure Agreements (NDA).

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Question # 116

What is the ultimate objective of information classification?

A.

To assign responsibility for mitigating the risk to vulnerable systems

B.

To ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection

C.

To recognize that the value of any item of information may change over time

D.

To recognize the optimal number of classification categories and the benefits to be gained from their use

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Question # 117

A software scanner identifies a region within a binary image having high entropy. What does this MOST likely indicate?

A.

Encryption routines

B.

Random number generator

C.

Obfuscated code

D.

Botnet command and control

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Question # 118

Which security service is served by the process of encryption plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting cipher text with the sender’s public key?

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Integrity

C.

Identification

D.

Availability

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Question # 119

The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following?

A.

Diffie-Hellman algorithm

B.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

C.

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

D.

Message Digest 5 (MD5)

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Question # 120

Which of the following mobile code security models relies only on trust?

A.

Code signing

B.

Class authentication

C.

Sandboxing

D.

Type safety

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Question # 121

Which component of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified automated vulnerability assessments?

A.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

B.

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

C.

Asset Reporting Format (ARF)

D.

Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL)

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Question # 122

Which technique can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack?

A.

Hashing the data before encryption

B.

Hashing the data after encryption

C.

Compressing the data after encryption

D.

Compressing the data before encryption

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Question # 123

Who in the organization is accountable for classification of data information assets?

A.

Data owner

B.

Data architect

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

D.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

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Question # 124

What is the second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management?

A.

Implementation Phase

B.

Initialization Phase

C.

Cancellation Phase

D.

Issued Phase

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Question # 125

A manufacturing organization wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the manufacturing organization?

A.

Trusted third-party certification

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

Security Assertion Markup language (SAML)

D.

Cross-certification

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Question # 126

Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices?

A.

Derived credential

B.

Temporary security credential

C.

Mobile device credentialing service

D.

Digest authentication

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Question # 127

Users require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. Which control would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary?

A.

Limit access to predefined queries

B.

Segregate the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level

C.

Implement Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

D.

Reduce the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes

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Question # 128

What is the BEST approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance?

A.

Audit logs

B.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Application of least privilege

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Question # 129

An organization plan on purchasing a custom software product developed by a small vendor to support its business model. Which unique consideration should be made part of the contractual agreement potential long-term risks associated with creating this dependency?

A.

A source code escrow clause

B.

Right to request an independent review of the software source code

C.

Due diligence form requesting statements of compliance with security requirements

D.

Access to the technical documentation

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Question # 130

Which of the following is a responsibility of a data steward?

A.

Ensure alignment of the data governance effort to the organization.

B.

Conduct data governance interviews with the organization.

C.

Document data governance requirements.

D.

Ensure that data decisions and impacts are communicated to the organization.

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Question # 131

What is the second step in the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

A.

Provisioning

B.

Review

C.

Approval

D.

Revocation

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Question # 132

Which of the following is a benefit in implementing an enterprise Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution?

A.

Password requirements are simplified.

B.

Risk associated with orphan accounts is reduced.

C.

Segregation of duties is automatically enforced.

D.

Data confidentiality is increased.

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Question # 133

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the impact of an externally sourced flood attack?

A.

Have the service provider block the soiree address.

B.

Have the soiree service provider block the address.

C.

Block the source address at the firewall.

D.

Block all inbound traffic until the flood ends.

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Question # 134

Unused space in a disk cluster is important in media analysis because it may contain which of the following?

A.

Residual data that has not been overwritten

B.

Hidden viruses and Trojan horses

C.

Information about the File Allocation table (FAT)

D.

Information about patches and upgrades to the system

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Question # 135

What does electronic vaulting accomplish?

A.

It protects critical files.

B.

It ensures the fault tolerance of Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) systems

C.

It stripes all database records

D.

It automates the Disaster Recovery Process (DRP)

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Question # 136

What is the correct order of steps in an information security assessment?

Place the information security assessment steps on the left next to the numbered boxes on the right in the

correct order.

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Question # 137

Which of the following is the MOST common method of memory protection?

A.

Compartmentalization

B.

Segmentation

C.

Error correction

D.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) tagging

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Question # 138

Who is responsible for the protection of information when it is shared with or provided to other organizations?

A.

Systems owner

B.

Authorizing Official (AO)

C.

Information owner

D.

Security officer

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Question # 139

Which of the following is the BEST reason for writing an information security policy?

A.

To support information security governance

B.

To reduce the number of audit findings

C.

To deter attackers

D.

To implement effective information security controls

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Question # 140

Which of the following is a direct monetary cost of a security incident?

A.

Morale

B.

Reputation

C.

Equipment

D.

Information

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Question # 141

Which of the following is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats?

A.

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

B.

Link Control Protocol (LCP)

C.

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

D.

Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP)

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Question # 142

What is the purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack?

A.

To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable

B.

To intercept network traffic without authorization

C.

To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices

D.

To convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity

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Question # 143

At what level of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) located?

A.

Link layer

B.

Physical layer

C.

Session layer

D.

Application layer

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Question # 144

Which of the following factors contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol?

A.

WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV)

B.

WEP uses Message Digest 5 (MD5)

C.

WEP uses Diffie-Hellman

D.

WEP does not use any Initialization Vector (IV)

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Question # 145

Which of the following operates at the Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

A.

Packet filtering

B.

Port services filtering

C.

Content filtering

D.

Application access control

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Question # 146

An input validation and exception handling vulnerability has been discovered on a critical web-based system. Which of the following is MOST suited to quickly implement a control?

A.

Add a new rule to the application layer firewall

B.

Block access to the service

C.

Install an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

D.

Patch the application source code

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Question # 147

Which of the following is the BEST network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress?

A.

Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)

B.

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)

C.

Stateful firewalls

D.

Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools

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Question # 148

An external attacker has compromised an organization’s network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information?

A.

Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls

B.

Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)

C.

Require strong authentication for administrators

D.

Implement logical network segmentation at the switches

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Question # 149

In a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack, which layer is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node?

A.

Transport layer

B.

Application layer

C.

Network layer

D.

Session layer

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Question # 150

Which of the following sets of controls should allow an investigation if an attack is not blocked by preventive controls or detected by monitoring?

A.

Logging and audit trail controls to enable forensic analysis

B.

Security incident response lessons learned procedures

C.

Security event alert triage done by analysts using a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system

D.

Transactional controls focused on fraud prevention

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Question # 151

What is the GREATEST challenge of an agent-based patch management solution?

A.

Time to gather vulnerability information about the computers in the program

B.

Requires that software be installed, running, and managed on all participating computers

C.

The significant amount of network bandwidth while scanning computers

D.

The consistency of distributing patches to each participating computer

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Question # 152

Place in order, from BEST (1) to WORST (4), the following methods to reduce the risk of data remanence on magnetic media.

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Question # 153

Which of the following standards/guidelines requires an Information Security Management System (ISMS) to be defined?

A.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27000 family

B.

Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCIDSS)

D.

ISO/IEC 20000

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Question # 154

How does Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) in transport mode affect the Internet Protocol (IP)?

A.

Encrypts and optionally authenticates the IP header, but not the IP payload

B.

Encrypts and optionally authenticates the IP payload, but not the IP header

C.

Authenticates the IP payload and selected portions of the IP header

D.

Encrypts and optionally authenticates the complete IP packet

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Question # 155

In order to assure authenticity, which of the following are required?

A.

Confidentiality and authentication

B.

Confidentiality and integrity

C.

Authentication and non-repudiation

D.

Integrity and non-repudiation

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Question # 156

Which of the following activities BEST identifies operational problems, security misconfigurations, and malicious attacks?

A.

Policy documentation review

B.

Authentication validation

C.

Periodic log reviews

D.

Interface testing

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Question # 157

The PRIMARY outcome of a certification process is that it provides documented

A.

system weaknesses for remediation.

B.

standards for security assessment, testing, and process evaluation.

C.

interconnected systems and their implemented security controls.

D.

security analyses needed to make a risk-based decision.

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Question # 158

What is a characteristic of Secure Socket Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS)?

A.

SSL and TLS provide a generic channel security mechanism on top of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

B.

SSL and TLS provide nonrepudiation by default.

C.

SSL and TLS do not provide security for most routed protocols.

D.

SSL and TLS provide header encapsulation over HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

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Question # 159

Which of the following is the BEST method to reduce the effectiveness of phishing attacks?

A.

User awareness

B.

Two-factor authentication

C.

Anti-phishing software

D.

Periodic vulnerability scan

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Question # 160

Data remanence refers to which of the following?

A.

The remaining photons left in a fiber optic cable after a secure transmission.

B.

The retention period required by law or regulation.

C.

The magnetic flux created when removing the network connection from a server or personal computer.

D.

The residual information left on magnetic storage media after a deletion or erasure.

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Question # 161

Which of the following restricts the ability of an individual to carry out all the steps of a particular process?

A.

Job rotation

B.

Separation of duties

C.

Least privilege

D.

Mandatory vacations

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Question # 162

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular vulnerability scanning of an organization network?

A.

Provide vulnerability reports to management.

B.

Validate vulnerability remediation activities.

C.

Prevent attackers from discovering vulnerabilities.

D.

Remediate known vulnerabilities.

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Question # 163

A vulnerability in which of the following components would be MOST difficult to detect?

A.

Kernel

B.

Shared libraries

C.

Hardware

D.

System application

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Question # 164

Which of the following is the BEST example of weak management commitment to the protection of security assets and resources?

A.

poor governance over security processes and procedures

B.

immature security controls and procedures

C.

variances against regulatory requirements

D.

unanticipated increases in security incidents and threats

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Question # 165

The MAIN reason an organization conducts a security authorization process is to

A.

force the organization to make conscious risk decisions.

B.

assure the effectiveness of security controls.

C.

assure the correct security organization exists.

D.

force the organization to enlist management support.

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Question # 166

Which of the following information MUST be provided for user account provisioning?

A.

Full name

B.

Unique identifier

C.

Security question

D.

Date of birth

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Question # 167

A health care provider is considering Internet access for their employees and patients. Which of the following is the organization's MOST secure solution for protection of data?

A.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and digital signatures

B.

Trusted server certificates and passphrases

C.

User ID and password

D.

Asymmetric encryption and User ID

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Question # 168

As a best practice, the Security Assessment Report (SAR) should include which of the following sections?

A.

Data classification policy

B.

Software and hardware inventory

C.

Remediation recommendations

D.

Names of participants

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Question # 169

An application developer is deciding on the amount of idle session time that the application allows before a timeout. The BEST reason for determining the session timeout requirement is

A.

organization policy.

B.

industry best practices.

C.

industry laws and regulations.

D.

management feedback.

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Question # 170

What operations role is responsible for protecting the enterprise from corrupt or contaminated media?

A.

Information security practitioner

B.

Information librarian

C.

Computer operator

D.

Network administrator

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Question # 171

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of mitigating data theft from an active user workstation?

A.

Implement full-disk encryption

B.

Enable multifactor authentication

C.

Deploy file integrity checkers

D.

Disable use of portable devices

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Question # 172

Which of the following is the MOST important output from a mobile application threat modeling exercise according to Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP)?

A.

Application interface entry and endpoints

B.

The likelihood and impact of a vulnerability

C.

Countermeasures and mitigations for vulnerabilities

D.

A data flow diagram for the application and attack surface analysis

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Question # 173

Retaining system logs for six months or longer can be valuable for what activities?

A.

Disaster recovery and business continuity

B.

Forensics and incident response

C.

Identity and authorization management

D.

Physical and logical access control

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Question # 174

If compromised, which of the following would lead to the exploitation of multiple virtual machines?

A.

Virtual device drivers

B.

Virtual machine monitor

C.

Virtual machine instance

D.

Virtual machine file system

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Question # 175

In which identity management process is the subject’s identity established?

A.

Trust

B.

Provisioning

C.

Authorization

D.

Enrollment

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Question # 176

When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined?

A.

After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed

B.

After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins

C.

After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins

D.

After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed

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Question # 177

A Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. The program is not working as expected. What is the MOST probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended?

A.

Least privilege

B.

Privilege escalation

C.

Defense in depth

D.

Privilege bracketing

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Question # 178

Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?

A.

Purchase software from a limited list of retailers

B.

Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates

C.

Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet

D.

Test all new software in a segregated environment

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Question # 179

What is the BEST approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications?

A.

Debug the security issues

B.

Migrate to newer, supported applications where possible

C.

Conduct a security assessment

D.

Protect the legacy application with a web application firewall

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Question # 180

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction?

A.

Lack of software documentation

B.

License agreements requiring release of modified code

C.

Expiration of the license agreement

D.

Costs associated with support of the software

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Question # 181

Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs?

A.

Check arguments in function calls

B.

Test for the security patch level of the environment

C.

Include logging functions

D.

Digitally sign each application module

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Question # 182

The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

A.

System acquisition and development

B.

System operations and maintenance

C.

System initiation

D.

System implementation

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Question # 183

An organization recently suffered from a web-application attack that resulted in stolen user session cookie information. The attacker was able to obtain the information

when a user’s browser executed a script upon visiting a compromised website. What type of attack MOST likely occurred?

A.

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

B.

Extensible Markup Language (XML) external entities

C.

SQL injection (SQLI)

D.

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

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Question # 184

Which of the following types of firewall only examines the “handshaking” between packets before forwarding traffic?

A.

Proxy firewalls

B.

Host-based firewalls

C.

Circuit-level firewalls

D.

Network Address Translation (NAT) firewalls

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Question # 185

In a multi-tenant cloud environment, what approach will secure logical access to assets?

A.

Hybrid cloud

B.

Transparency/Auditability of administrative access

C.

Controlled configuration management (CM)

D.

Virtual private cloud (VPC)

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Question # 186

Change management policies and procedures belong to which of the following types of controls?

A.

Directive

B.

Detective

C.

Corrective

D.

Preventative

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Question # 187

What is the BEST method if an investigator wishes to analyze a hard drive which may be used as evidence?

A.

Leave the hard drive in place and use only verified and authenticated Operating Systems (OS) utilities ...

B.

Log into the system and immediately make a copy of all relevant files to a Write Once, Read Many ...

C.

Remove the hard drive from the system and make a copy of the hard drive's contents using imaging hardware.

D.

Use a separate bootable device to make a copy of the hard drive before booting the system and analyzing the hard drive.

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Question # 188

Which of the following are the B EST characteristics of security metrics?

A.

They are generalized and provide a broad overview

B.

They use acronyms and abbreviations to be concise

C.

They use bar charts and Venn diagrams

D.

They are consistently measured and quantitatively expressed

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Question # 189

In an IDEAL encryption system, who has sole access to the decryption key?

A.

System owner

B.

Data owner

C.

Data custodian

D.

System administrator

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Question # 190

Individual access to a network is BEST determined based on

A.

risk matrix.

B.

value of the data.

C.

business need.

D.

data classification.

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Question # 191

Which of the following is the BEST statement for a professional to include as port of business continuity (BC) procedure?

A.

A full data backup must be done upon management request.

B.

An incremental data backup must be done upon management request.

C.

A full data backup must be done based on the needs of the business.

D.

In incremental data backup must be done after each system change.

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Question # 192

Which of the following needs to be included in order for High Availability (HA) to continue operations during planned system outages?

A.

Redundant hardware, disk spanning, and patching

B.

Load balancing, power reserves, and disk spanning

C.

Backups, clustering, and power reserves

D.

Clustering, load balancing, and fault-tolerant options

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Question # 193

Which of the following is TRUE regarding equivalence class testing?

A.

It is characterized by the stateless behavior of a process implemented In a function.

B.

An entire partition can be covered by considering only one representative value from that partition.

C.

Test inputs are obtained from the derived boundaries of the given functional specifications.

D.

It is useful for testing communications protocols and graphical user interfaces.

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Question # 194

What is the PRIMARY purpose of creating and reporting metrics for a security awareness, training, and education program?

A.

Make all stakeholders aware of the program's progress.

B.

Measure the effect of the program on the organization's workforce.

C.

Facilitate supervision of periodic training events.

D.

Comply with legal regulations and document due diligence in security practices.

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Question # 195

The security organization is looking for a solution that could help them determine with a strong level of confidence that attackers have breached their network. Which solution is MOST effective at discovering a successful network breach?

A.

Deploying a honeypot

B.

Developing a sandbox

C.

Installing an intrusion prevention system (IPS)

D.

Installing an intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Question # 196

Which of the following security testing strategies is BEST suited for companies with low to moderate security maturity?

A.

Load Testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Black -box testing

D.

Performance testing

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Question # 197

Which of the following statements BEST distinguishes a stateful packet inspection firewall from a stateless packet filter firewall?

A.

The SPI inspects the flags on Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) packets.

B.

The SPI inspects the traffic in the context of a session.

C.

The SPI is capable of dropping packets based on a pre-defined rule set.

D.

The SPI inspects traffic on a packet-by-packet basis.

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Question # 198

When conducting a security assessment of access controls , Which activity is port of the data analysis phase?

A.

Collect logs and reports.

B.

Present solutions to address audit exceptions.

C.

Categorize and Identify evidence gathered during the audit

D.

Conduct statiscal sampling of data transactions.

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Question # 199

To monitor the security of buried data lines inside the perimeter of a facility, which of the following is the MOST effective control?

A.

Fencing around the facility with closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras at all entry points

B.

Ground sensors installed and reporting to a security event management (SEM) system

C.

Steel casing around the facility ingress points

D.

regular sweeps of the perimeter, including manual inspection of the cable ingress points

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Question # 200

An organization is outsourcing its payroll system and is requesting to conduct a full audit on the third-party information technology (IT) systems. During the due diligence process, the third party provides previous audit report on its IT system.

Which of the following MUST be considered by the organization in order for the audit reports to be acceptable?

A.

The audit assessment has been conducted by an independent assessor.

B.

The audit reports have been signed by the third-party senior management.

C.

The audit reports have been issued in the last six months.

D.

The audit assessment has been conducted by an international audit firm.

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Question # 201

What is the benefit of an operating system (OS) feature that is designed to prevent an application from executing code from a non-executable memory region?

A.

Identifies which security patches still need to be installed on the system

B.

Stops memory resident viruses from propagating their payload

C.

Reduces the risk of polymorphic viruses from encrypting their payload

D.

Helps prevent certain exploits that store code in buffers

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Question # 202

What is the MOST effective way to protect privacy?

A.

Eliminate or reduce collection of personal information.

B.

Encrypt all collected personal information.

C.

Classify all personal information at the highest information classification level.

D.

Apply tokenization to all personal information records.

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Question # 203

What is the overall goal of software security testing?

A.

Identifying the key security features of the software

B.

Ensuring all software functions perform as specified

C.

Reducing vulnerabilities within a software system

D.

Making software development more agile

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Question # 204

An organization that has achieved a Capability Maturity model Integration (CMMI) level of 4 has done which of the following?

A.

Addressed continuous innovative process improvement

B.

Addressed the causes of common process variance

C.

Achieved optimized process performance

D.

Achieved predictable process performance

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Question # 205

Which of the following models uses unique groups contained in unique conflict classes?

A.

Chinese Wall

B.

Bell-LaPadula

C.

Clark-Wilson

D.

Biba

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Question # 206

Which of the following is a characteristic of the independent testing of a program?

A.

Independent testing increases the likelihood that a test will expose the effect of a hidden feature.

B.

Independent testing decreases the likelihood that a test will expose the effect of a hidden feature.

C.

Independent testing teams help decrease the cost of creating test data and system design specification.

D.

Independent testing teams help identify functional requirements and Service Level Agreements (SLA)

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Question # 207

Spyware is BEST described as

A.

data mining for advertising.

B.

a form of cyber-terrorism,

C.

an information gathering technique,

D.

a web-based attack.

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Question # 208

Which of the following is the BEST way to protect privileged accounts?

A.

Quarterly user access rights audits

B.

Role-based access control (RBAC)

C.

Written supervisory approval

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

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Question # 209

Which of the following attack types can be used to compromise the integrity of data during transmission?

A.

Keylogging

B.

Packet sniffing

C.

Synchronization flooding

D.

Session hijacking

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Question # 210

Which of the following is the strongest physical access control?

A.

Biometrics and badge reader

B.

Biometrics, a password, and personal identification number (PIN)

C.

Individual password for each user

D.

Biometrics, a password, and badge reader

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