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Question # 4

Which protocol, as a part of TLS, handles negotiating and establishing a connection between two parties?

A.

Record

B.

Binding

C.

Negotiation

D.

Handshake

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Question # 5

Which of the following storage types is most closely associated with a database-type storage implementation?

A.

Object

B.

Unstructured

C.

Volume

D.

Structured

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Question # 6

Which of the following may unilaterally deem a cloud hosting model inappropriate for a system or application?

A.

Multitenancy

B.

Certification

C.

Regulation

D.

Virtualization

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Question # 7

Which protocol allows a system to use block-level storage as if it was a SAN, but over TCP network traffic instead?

A.

SATA

B.

iSCSI

C.

TLS

D.

SCSI

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Question # 8

Which of the following attempts to establish an international standard for eDiscovery processes and best practices?

A.

ISO/IEC 31000

B.

ISO/IEC 27050

C.

ISO/IEC 19888

D.

ISO/IEC 27001

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Question # 9

What must be secured on physical hardware to prevent unauthorized access to systems?

A.

BIOS

B.

SSH

C.

RDP

D.

ALOM

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Question # 10

What does SDN stand for within a cloud environment?

A.

Software-dynamic networking

B.

Software-defined networking

C.

Software-dependent networking

D.

System-dynamic nodes

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Question # 11

Which of the following is not a component of contractual PII?

A.

Scope of processing

B.

Value of data

C.

Location of data

D.

Use of subcontractors

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Question # 12

Which of the following threat types can occur when encryption is not properly applied or insecure transport mechanisms are used?

A.

Security misconfiguration

B.

Insecure direct object references

C.

Sensitive data exposure

D.

Unvalidated redirects and forwards

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Question # 13

Which of the following roles involves overseeing billing, purchasing, and requesting audit reports for an organization within a cloud environment?

A.

Cloud service user

B.

Cloud service business manager

C.

Cloud service administrator

D.

Cloud service integrator

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Question # 14

If you're using iSCSI in a cloud environment, what must come from an external protocol or application?

A.

Kerberos support

B.

CHAP support

C.

Authentication

D.

Encryption

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Question # 15

What type of PII is controlled based on laws and carries legal penalties for noncompliance with requirements?

A.

Contractual

B.

Regulated

C.

Specific

D.

Jurisdictional

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Question # 16

Which of the following is considered an external redundancy for a data center?

A.

Power feeds to rack

B.

Generators

C.

Power distribution units

D.

Storage systems

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Question # 17

How is an object stored within an object storage system?

A.

Key value

B.

Database

C.

LDAP

D.

Tree structure

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Question # 18

Which is the appropriate phase of the cloud data lifecycle for determining the data's classification?

A.

Create

B.

Use

C.

Share

D.

Store

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Question # 19

Which technique involves replacing values within a specific data field to protect sensitive data?

A.

Anonymization

B.

Masking

C.

Tokenization

D.

Obfuscation

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Question # 20

From a legal perspective, what is the most important first step after an eDiscovery order has been received by the cloud provider?

A.

Notification

B.

Key identification

C.

Data collection

D.

Virtual image snapshots

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Question # 21

Which of the following roles is responsible for peering with other cloud services and providers?

A.

Cloud auditor

B.

Inter-cloud provider

C.

Cloud service broker

D.

Cloud service developer

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Question # 22

Which type of cloud model typically presents the most challenges to a cloud customer during the "destroy" phase of the cloud data lifecycle?

A.

IaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

SaaS

D.

PaaS

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Question # 23

Why does a Type 2 hypervisor typically offer less security control than a Type 1 hypervisor?

A.

A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of another operating system and is dependent on the security of the OS for its own security.

B.

A Type 2 hypervisor allows users to directly perform some functions with their own access.

C.

A Type 2 hypervisor is open source, so attackers can more easily find exploitable vulnerabilities with that access.

D.

A Type 2 hypervisor is always exposed to the public Internet for federated identity access.

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Question # 24

With software-defined networking, what aspect of networking is abstracted from the forwarding of traffic?

A.

Routing

B.

Session

C.

Filtering

D.

Firewalling

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Question # 25

Which entity requires all collection and storing of data on their citizens to be done on hardware that resides within their borders?

A.

Russia

B.

France

C.

Germany

D.

United States

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Question # 26

Which value refers to the percentage of production level restoration needed to meet BCDR objectives?

A.

RPO

B.

RTO

C.

RSL

D.

SRE

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Question # 27

Which of the cloud deployment models offers the most control and input to the cloud customer as to how the overall cloud environment is implemented and configured?

A.

Public

B.

Community

C.

Hybrid

D.

Private

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Question # 28

Which of the cloud deployment models involves spanning multiple cloud environments or a mix of cloud hosting models?

A.

Community

B.

Public

C.

Hybrid

D.

Private

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Question # 29

Which data point that auditors always desire is very difficult to provide within a cloud environment?

A.

Access policy

B.

Systems architecture

C.

Baselines

D.

Privacy statement

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Question # 30

Which crucial aspect of cloud computing can be most threatened by insecure APIs?

A.

Automation

B.

Redundancy

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Elasticity

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Question # 31

The management plane is used to administer a cloud environment and perform administrative tasks across a variety of systems, but most specifically it's used with the hypervisors.

What does the management plane typically leverage for this orchestration?

A.

APIs

B.

Scripts

C.

TLS

D.

XML

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Question # 32

Many tools and technologies are available for securing or monitoring data in transit within a data center, whether it is a traditional data center or a cloud.

Which of the following is NOT a technology for securing data in transit?

A.

VPN

B.

TLS

C.

DNSSEC

D.

HTTPS

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Question # 33

Which data state would be most likely to use TLS as a protection mechanism?

A.

Data in use

B.

Data at rest

C.

Archived

D.

Data in transit

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Question # 34

Which of the following is NOT an application or utility to apply and enforce baselines on a system?

A.

Chef

B.

GitHub

C.

Puppet

D.

Active Directory

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Question # 35

Which security concept would business continuity and disaster recovery fall under?

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Availability

C.

Fault tolerance

D.

Integrity

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Question # 36

What does static application security testing (SAST) offer as a tool to the testers?

A.

Production system scanning

B.

Injection attempts

C.

Source code access

D.

Live testing

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Question # 37

In the wake of many scandals with major corporations involving fraud and the deception of investors and regulators, which of the following laws was passed to govern accounting and financial records and disclosures?

A.

GLBA

B.

Safe Harbor

C.

HIPAA

D.

SOX

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Question # 38

All the following are data analytics modes, except:

A.

Datamining

B.

Agile business intelligence

C.

Refractory iterations

D.

Real-time analytics

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Question # 39

Which of the following is NOT one of the components of multifactor authentication?

A.

Something the user knows

B.

Something the user has

C.

Something the user sends

D.

Something the user is

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Question # 40

APIs are defined as which of the following?

A.

A set of protocols, and tools for building software applications to access a web-based software application or tool

B.

A set of routines, standards, protocols, and tools for building software applications to access a web-based software application or tool

C.

A set of standards for building software applications to access a web-based software application or tool

D.

A set of routines and tools for building software applications to access web-based software applications

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Question # 41

The BIA can be used to provide information about all the following, except:

A.

BC/DR planning

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Secure acquisition

D.

Selection of security controls

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Question # 42

A variety of security systems can be integrated within a network--some that just monitor for threats and issue alerts, and others that take action based on signatures, behavior, and other types of rules to actively stop potential threats.

Which of the following types of technologies is best described here?

A.

IDS

B.

IPS

C.

Proxy

D.

Firewall

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Question # 43

What's a potential problem when object storage versus volume storage is used within IaaS for application use and dependency?

A.

Object storage is only optimized for small files.

B.

Object storage is its own system, and data consistency depends on replication.

C.

Object storage may have availability issues.

D.

Object storage is dependent on access control from the host server.

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Question # 44

Which of the following is the least challenging with regard to eDiscovery in the cloud?

A.

Identifying roles such as data owner, controller and processor

B.

Decentralization of data storage

C.

Forensic analysis

D.

Complexities of International law

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Question # 45

Which data sanitation method is also commonly referred to as "zeroing"?

A.

Overwriting

B.

Nullification

C.

Blanking

D.

Deleting

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Question # 46

Data masking can be used to provide all of the following functionality, except:

A.

Test data in sandboxed environments

B.

Authentication of privileged users

C.

Enforcing least privilege

D.

Secure remote access

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Question # 47

Which protocol, as a part of TLS, handles the actual secure communications and transmission of data?

A.

Negotiation

B.

Handshake

C.

Transfer

D.

Record

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Question # 48

Security is a critical yet often overlooked consideration for BCDR planning.

At which stage of the planning process should security be involved?

A.

Scope definition

B.

Requirements gathering

C.

Analysis

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 49

What does static application security testing (SAST) offer as a tool to the testers that makes it unique compared to other common security testing methodologies?

A.

Live testing

B.

Source code access

C.

Production system scanning

D.

Injection attempts

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Question # 50

The WS-Security standards are built around all of the following standards except which one?

A.

SAML

B.

WDSL

C.

XML

D.

SOAP

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Question # 51

When using an IaaS solution, what is a key benefit provided to the customer?

A.

Metered and priced on the basis of units consumed

B.

Increased energy and cooling system efficiencies

C.

Transferred cost of ownership

D.

The ability to scale up infrastructure services based on projected usage

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Question # 52

As a result of scandals involving publicly traded corporations such as Enron, WorldCom, and Adelphi, Congress passed legislation known as:

A.

SOX

B.

HIPAA

C.

FERPA

D.

GLBA

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Question # 53

There is a large gap between the privacy laws of the United States and those of the European Union. Bridging this gap is necessary for American companies to do business with European companies and in European markets in many situations, as the American companies are required to comply with the stricter requirements.

Which US program was designed to help companies overcome these differences?

A.

SOX

B.

HIPAA

C.

GLBA

D.

Safe Harbor

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Question # 54

Which phase of the cloud data lifecycle represents the first instance where security controls can be implemented?

A.

Use

B.

Share

C.

Store

D.

Create

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Question # 55

With finite resources available within a cloud, even the largest cloud providers will at times need to determine which customers will receive additional resources first.

What is the term associated with this determination?

A.

Weighting

B.

Prioritization

C.

Shares

D.

Scoring

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Question # 56

Where is a DLP solution generally installed when utilized for monitoring data in use?

A.

Application server

B.

Database server

C.

Network perimeter

D.

User’s client

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Question # 57

Humidity levels for a data center are a prime concern for maintaining electrical and computing resources properly as well as ensuring that conditions are optimal for top performance.

Which of the following is the optimal humidity level, as established by ASHRAE?

A.

20 to 40 percent relative humidity

B.

50 to 75 percent relative humidity

C.

40 to 60 percent relative humidity

D.

30 to 50 percent relative humidity

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Question # 58

With a federated identity system, where would a user perform their authentication when requesting services or application access?

A.

Cloud provider

B.

The application

C.

Their home organization

D.

Third-party authentication system

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Question # 59

If a cloud computing customer wishes to guarantee that a minimum level of resources will always be available, which of the following set of services would compromise the reservation?

A.

Memory and networking

B.

CPU and software

C.

CPU and storage

D.

CPU and memory

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Question # 60

Along with humidity, temperature is crucial to a data center for optimal operations and protection of equipment.

Which of the following is the optimal temperature range as set by ASHRAE?

A.

69.8 to 86.0 degrees Fahrenheit (21 to 30 degrees Celsius)

B.

51.8 to 66.2 degrees Fahrenheit (11 to 19 degrees Celsius)

C.

64.4 to 80.6 degrees Fahrenheit (18 to 27 degrees Celsius)

D.

44.6 to 60.8 degrees Fahrenheit (7 to 16 degrees Celsius)

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Question # 61

An SLA contains the official requirements for contract performance and satisfaction between the cloud provider and cloud customer. Which of the following would NOT be a component with measurable metrics and requirements as part of an SLA?

A.

Network

B.

Users

C.

Memory

D.

CPU

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Question # 62

Which of the following actions will NOT make data part of the create phase of the cloud data lifecycle?

A.

Modify data

B.

Modify metadata

C.

New data

D.

Import data

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Question # 63

Which cloud service category would be most ideal for a cloud customer that is developing software to test its applications among multiple hosting providers to determine the best option for its needs?

A.

DaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

SaaS

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Question # 64

Which of the following threat types involves an application that does not validate authorization for portions of itself beyond when the user first enters it?

A.

Cross-site request forgery

B.

Missing function-level access control

C.

Injection

D.

Cross-site scripting

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Question # 65

Where is a DLP solution generally installed when utilized for monitoring data at rest?

A.

Network firewall

B.

Host system

C.

Application server

D.

Database server

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Question # 66

One of the main components of system audits is the ability to track changes over time and to match these changes with continued compliance and internal processes.

Which aspect of cloud computing makes this particular component more challenging than in a traditional data center?

A.

Portability

B.

Virtualization

C.

Elasticity

D.

Resource pooling

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Question # 67

A DLP solution/implementation has three main components.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three main components?

A.

Monitoring

B.

Enforcement

C.

Auditing

D.

Discovery and classification

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Question # 68

Other than cost savings realized due to measured service, what is another facet of cloud computing that will typically save substantial costs in time and money for an organization in the event of a disaster?

A.

Broad network access

B.

Interoperability

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Portability

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Question # 69

Which European Union directive pertains to personal data privacy and an individual's control over their personal data?

A.

99/9/EC

B.

95/46/EC

C.

2000/1/EC

D.

2013/27001/EC

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Question # 70

Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the requirements placed on the cloud provider by the cloud customer for minimum performance standards and requirements that must be met?

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

SLAs

C.

Auditability

D.

Governance

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Question # 71

Which of the following is NOT a focus or consideration of an internal audit?

A.

Certification

B.

Design

C.

Costs

D.

Operational efficiency

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Question # 72

What concept does the "I" represent with the STRIDE threat model?

A.

Integrity

B.

Information disclosure

C.

IT security

D.

Insider threat

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Question # 73

What type of host is exposed to the public Internet for a specific reason and hardened to perform only that function for authorized users?

A.

Proxy

B.

Bastion

C.

Honeypot

D.

WAF

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Question # 74

What does the "SOC" acronym refer to with audit reports?

A.

Service Origin Confidentiality

B.

System Organization Confidentiality

C.

Service Organizational Control

D.

System Organization Control

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Question # 75

Which process serves to prove the identity and credentials of a user requesting access to an application or data?

A.

Repudiation

B.

Authentication

C.

Identification

D.

Authorization

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Question # 76

Which of the following is NOT something that an HIDS will monitor?

A.

Configurations

B.

User logins

C.

Critical system files

D.

Network traffic

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