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Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 ( 156-315.81.20 )

Last Update 3 hours ago Total Questions : 636

The Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 ( 156-315.81.20 ) content is now fully updated, with all current exam questions added 3 hours ago. Deciding to include 156-315.81 practice exam questions in your study plan goes far beyond basic test preparation.

You'll find that our 156-315.81 exam questions frequently feature detailed scenarios and practical problem-solving exercises that directly mirror industry challenges. Engaging with these 156-315.81 sample sets allows you to effectively manage your time and pace yourself, giving you the ability to finish any Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 ( 156-315.81.20 ) practice test comfortably within the allotted time.

Question # 31

Security Checkup Summary can be easily conducted within:

A.

Summary

B.

Views

C.

Reports

D.

Checkups

Question # 32

What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

A.

When a box up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

B.

When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

C.

When an Interface fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

D.

When a box fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

Question # 33

SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

A.

Analyzes each log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy. When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.

C.

Collects syslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.

D.

Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

Question # 34

In ClusterXL Load Sharing Multicast Mode:

A.

only the primary member received packets sent to the cluster IP address

B.

only the secondary member receives packets sent to the cluster IP address

C.

packets sent to the cluster IP address are distributed equally between all members of the cluster

D.

every member of the cluster received all of the packets sent to the cluster IP address

Question # 35

What is the purpose of extended master key extension/session hash?

A.

UDP VOIP protocol extension

B.

In case of TLS1.x it is a prevention of a Man-in-the-Middle attack/disclosure of the client-server communication

C.

Special TCP handshaking extension

D.

Supplement DLP data watermark

Question # 36

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

A.

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

Question # 37

Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

A.

Always delivers a file to user

B.

Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files

C.

Can take up to 3 minutes to complete

D.

Delivers file only if no threats found

Question # 38

NO: 180

What command can you use to have cpinfo display all installed hotfixes?

A.

cpinfo -hf

B.

cpinfo –y all

C.

cpinfo –get hf

D.

cpinfo installed_jumbo

Question # 39

Which one of the following is true about Capsule Connect?

A.

It is a full layer 3 VPN client

B.

It offers full enterprise mobility management

C.

It is supported only on iOS phones and Windows PCs

D.

It does not support all VPN authentication methods

Question # 40

To enable Dynamic Dispatch on Security Gateway without the Firewall Priority Queues, run the following command in Expert mode and reboot:

A.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch on

B.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch enable

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 4

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

Question # 41

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server. While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret the administrator found that the check box to enable pre-shared secret and cannot be enabled.

Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

A.

IPsec VPN blade should be enabled on both Security Gateway.

B.

Pre-shared can only be used while creating a VPN between a third party vendor and Check Point Security Gateway.

C.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS.

D.

The Security Gateways are pre-R75.40.

Question # 42

Which member of a high-availability cluster should be upgraded first in a Zero downtime upgrade?

A.

The Standby Member

B.

The Active Member

C.

The Primary Member

D.

The Secondary Member

Question # 43

Which one is not a valid Package Option In the Web GUI for CPUSE?

A.

Clean Install

B.

Export Package

C.

Upgrade

D.

Database Conversion to R81.20 only

Question # 44

Installations and upgrades with CPUSE require that the CPUSE agent is up-to-date. Usually the latest build is downloaded automatically. How can you verify the CPUSE agent build?

A.

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build

B.

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status version

C.

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the fo l lowing command in CLISH: show installer status build

D.

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the fo l lowing command in CLISH: show installer agent

Question # 45

What traffic does the Anti-bot feature block?

A.

Command and Control traffic from hosts that have been identified as infected

B.

Command and Control traffic to servers with reputation for hosting malware

C.

Network traffic that is directed to unknown or malicious servers

D.

Network traffic to hosts that have been identified as infected

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