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Question # 4

Which example BEST represents the set of restrictive areas that require an additional authentication factor for access control?

A.

Datacenters; telecom rooms; server rooms; exterior building entrance

B.

Datacenters; telecom rooms; security operations centers; loading docks

C.

Telecom rooms; parking garage; security operations centers; exterior building entrance

D.

Exterior building entrance; datacenters; telecom rooms; printer rooms

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Question # 5

Which approach for managing end-user device security is typically used for lost or stolen company-owned devices?

A.

Remotely enable lost mode status on the device

B.

Deletion of data after a pre-defined number of failed login attempts

C.

Enterprise wipe of all company data and contacts

D.

Remote wipe of the device and restore to factory settings

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Question # 6

Which activity BEST describes conducting due diligence of a lower risk vendor?

A.

Accepting a service providers self-assessment questionnaire responses

B.

Preparing reports to management regarding the status of third party risk management and remediation activities

C.

Reviewing a service provider's self-assessment questionnaire and external audit report(s)

D.

Requesting and filing a service provider's external audit report(s) for future reference

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Question # 7

Which statement does NOT reflect current practice in addressing fourth party risk or subcontracting risk?

A.

Third party contracts and agreements should require prior notice and approval for subcontracting

B.

Outsourcers should rely on requesting and reviewing external audit reports to address subcontracting risk

C.

Outsourcers should inspect the vendor's TPRM program and require evidence of the assessments of subcontractors

D.

Third party contracts should include capturing, maintaining, and tracking authorized subcontractors

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Question # 8

Which of the following statements is FALSE about Data Loss Prevention Programs?

A.

DLP programs include the policy, tool configuration requirements, and processes for the identification, blocking or monitoring of data

B.

DLP programs define the consequences for non-compliance to policies

C.

DLP programs define the required policies based on default tool configuration

D.

DLP programs include acknowledgement the company can apply controls to remove any data

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Question # 9

Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to trigger notification obligations in incident response?

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Data classification or sensitivity

C.

Encryption of data

D.

Contractual terms

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Question # 10

An IT change management approval process includes all of the following components EXCEPT:

A.

Application version control standards for software release updates

B.

Documented audit trail for all emergency changes

C.

Defined roles between business and IT functions

D.

Guidelines that restrict approval of changes to only authorized personnel

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Question # 11

Which factor is the LEAST important attribute when classifying personal data?

A.

The volume of data records processed or retained

B.

The data subject category that identifies the data owner

C.

The sensitivity level of specific data elements that could identify an individual

D.

The assignment of a confidentiality level that differentiates public or non-public information

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Question # 12

When evaluating remote access risk, which of the following is LEAST applicable to your analysis?

A.

Logging of remote access authentication attempts

B.

Limiting access by job role of business justification

C.

Monitoring device activity usage volumes

D.

Requiring application whitelisting

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Question # 13

An IT asset management program should include all of the following components EXCEPT:

A.

Maintaining inventories of systems, connections, and software applications

B.

Defining application security standards for internally developed applications

C.

Tracking and monitoring availability of vendor updates and any timelines for end of support

D.

Identifying and tracking adherence to IT asset end-of-life policy

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Question # 14

Tracking breach, credential exposure and insider fraud/theft alerts is an example of which continuous monitoring technique?

A.

Monitoring surface

B.

Vulnerabilities

C.

Passive and active indicators of compromise

D.

Business intelligence

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Question # 15

Which of the following is NOT an attribute in the vendor inventory used to assign risk rating and vendor classification?

A.

Type of data accessed, processed, or retained

B.

Type of systems accessed

C.

Type of contract addendum

D.

Type of network connectivity

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Question # 16

Which statement is NOT an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics?

A.

To communicate the status of findings identified in vendor assessments and escalate issues es needed

B.

To communicate the status of policy compliance with TPRM onboarding, periodic assessment and off-boarding requirements

C.

To document the agreed upon corrective action plan between external parties based on the severity of findings

D.

To develop and provide periodic reporting to management based on TPRM results

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Question # 17

Which statement BEST describes the methods of performing due diligence during third party risk assessments?

A.

Inspecting physical and environmental security controls by conducting a facility tour

B.

Reviewing status of findings from the questionnaire and defining remediation plans

C.

interviewing subject matter experts or control owners, reviewing compliance artifacts, and validating controls

D.

Reviewing and assessing only the obligations that are specifically defined in the contract

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Question # 18

Which statement is TRUE regarding artifacts reviewed when assessing the Cardholder Data Environment (CDE) in payment card processing?

A.

The Data Security Standards (DSS) framework should be used to scope the assessment

B.

The Report on Compliance (ROC) provides the assessment results completed by a qualified security assessor that includes an onsite audit

C.

The Self-Assessment Questionnaire (SAQ) provides independent testing of controls

D.

A System and Organization Controls (SOC) report is sufficient if the report addresses the same location

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Question # 19

Which of the following statements BEST represent the relationship between incident response and incident notification plans?

A.

Cybersecurity incident response programs have the same scope and objectives as privacy incident notification procedures

B.

All privacy and security incidents should be treated alike until analysis is performed to quantify the number of records impacted

C.

Security incident response management is only included in crisis communication for externally reported events

D.

A security incident may become a security breach based upon analysis and trigger the organization's incident notification or crisis communication process

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Question # 20

Which cloud deployment model is focused on the management of hardware equipment?

A.

Function as a service

B.

Platform as a service

C.

Software as a service

D.

Infrastructure as a service

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Question # 21

Which statement is FALSE when describing the differences between security vulnerabilities and security defects?

A.

A security defect is a security flaw identified in an application due to poor coding practices

B.

Security defects should be treated as exploitable vulnerabilities

C.

Security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous

D.

A security defect can become a security vulnerability if undetected after migration into production

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Question # 22

A contract clause that enables each party to share the amount of information security risk is known as:

A.

Limitation of liability

B.

Cyber Insurance

C.

Force majeure

D.

Mutual indemnification

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Question # 23

In which phase of the TPRM lifecycle should terms for return or destruction of data be defined and agreed upon?

A.

During contract negotiation

B.

At third party selection and initial due diligence

C.

When deploying ongoing monitoring

D.

At termination and exit

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Question # 24

Which of the following data safeguarding techniques provides the STRONGEST assurance that data does not identify an individual?

A.

Data masking

B.

Data encryption

C.

Data anonymization

D.

Data compression

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Question # 25

Which cloud deployment model is primarily focused on the application layer?

A.

Infrastructure as a Service

B.

Software as a Service

C.

Function a3 a Service

D.

Platform as a Service

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Question # 26

Which statement is FALSE regarding the methods of measuring third party risk?

A.

Risk can be measured both qualitatively and quantitatively

B.

Risk can be quantified by calculating the severity of impact and likelihood of occurrence

C.

Assessing risk impact requires an analysis of prior events, frequency of occurrence, and external trends to analyze and predict the potential of a particular event happening

D.

Risk likelihood or probability is a critical element in quantifying inherent or residual risk

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Question # 27

Which statement is FALSE regarding analyzing results from a vendor risk assessment?

A.

The frequency for conducting a vendor reassessment is defined by regulatory obligations

B.

Findings from a vendor risk assessment may be defined at the entity level, and are based o na Specific topic or control

C.

Identifying findings from a vendor risk assessment can occur at any stage in the contract lifecycle

D.

Risk assessment findings identified by controls testing or validation should map back to the information gathering questionnaire and agreed upon framework

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Question # 28

Which cloud deployment model is primarily used for load balancing?

A.

Public Cloud

B.

Community Cloud

C.

Hybrid Cloud

D.

Private Cloud

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Question # 29

You are updating program requirements due to shift in use of technologies by vendors to enable hybrid work. Which statement is LEAST likely to represent components of an Asset

Management Program?

A.

Asset inventories should include connections to external parties, networks, or systems that process data

B.

Each asset should include an organizational owner who is responsible for the asset throughout its life cycle

C.

Assets should be classified based on criticality or data sensitivity

D.

Asset inventories should track the flow or distribution of items used to fulfill products and Services across production lines

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Question # 30

Your company has been alerted that an IT vendor began utilizing a subcontractor located in a country restricted by company policy. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?

A.

Notify management to approve an exception and ensure that contract provisions require prior “notification and evidence of subcontractor due diligence

B.

inform the business unit and recommend that the company cease future work with the IT vendor due to company policy

C.

Update the vender inventory with the mew location information in order to schedule a reassessment

D.

Inform the business unit and ask the vendor to replace the subcontractor at their expense in “order to move the processing back to an approved country

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Question # 31

Which of the following components are typically NOT part of a cloud hosting vendor assessment program?

A.

Reviewing the entity's image snapshot approval and management process

B.

Requiring security services documentation and audit attestation reports

C.

Requiring compliance evidence that provides the definition of patching responsibilities

D.

Conducting customer performed penetration tests

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Question # 32

Which of the following BEST describes the distinction between a regulation and a standard?

A.

A regulation must be adhered to by all companies subject to its requirements, but companies “can voluntarily choose to follow standards.

B.

There is no distinction, regulations and standards are the same and have equal impact

C.

Standards are always a subset of a regulation

D.

A standard must be adhered to by companies based on the industry they are in, while regulations are voluntary.

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Question # 33

You are assessing your organization's Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (BR/BCP) requirements based on the shift to remote work. Which statement is LEAST reflective of current practices in business resiliency?

A.

Third party service providers should be included in the company’s exercise and testing program based on the criticality of the outsourced business function

B.

The right to require participation in testing with third party service providers should be included in the contract

C.

The contract is the only enforceable control to stipulate third party service provider obligations for DR/BCP since both programs were triggered by the pandemic

D.

Management should request and receive artifacts that Gemonstrate successful test results and any remediation action plans

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Question # 34

When measuring the operational performance of implementing a TPRM program, which example is MOST likely to provide meaningful metrics?

A.

logging the number of exceptions to existing due diligence standards

B.

Measuring the time spent by resources for task and corrective action plan completion

C.

Calculating the average time to remediate identified corrective actions

D.

Tracking the number of outstanding findings

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Question # 35

Which of the following indicators is LEAST likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor?

A.

Change in vendor location or use of new fourth parties

B.

Change in scope of existing work (e.g., new data or system access)

C.

Change in regulation that impacts service provider requirements

D.

Change at outsourcer due to M&A

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Question # 36

Which statement is NOT an accurate reflection of an organizations requirements within an enterprise information security policy?

A.

Security policies should define the organizational structure and accountabilities for oversight

B.

Security policies should have an effective date and date of last review by management

C.

Security policies should be changed on an annual basis due to technology changes

D.

Security policies should be organized based upon an accepted control framework

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Question # 37

Upon completion of a third party assessment, a meeting should be scheduled with which

of the following resources prior to sharing findings with the vendor/service provider to

approve remediation plans:

A.

CISO/CIO

B.

Business Unit Relationship Owner

C.

internal Audit

D.

C&O

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