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Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP)

Last Update 8 hours ago Total Questions : 125

The Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) content is now fully updated, with all current exam questions added 8 hours ago. Deciding to include CTPRP practice exam questions in your study plan goes far beyond basic test preparation.

You'll find that our CTPRP exam questions frequently feature detailed scenarios and practical problem-solving exercises that directly mirror industry challenges. Engaging with these CTPRP sample sets allows you to effectively manage your time and pace yourself, giving you the ability to finish any Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) practice test comfortably within the allotted time.

Question # 1

Which statement is NOT an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics?

A.

To communicate the status of findings identified in vendor assessments and escalate issues es needed

B.

To communicate the status of policy compliance with TPRM onboarding, periodic assessment and off-boarding requirements

C.

To document the agreed upon corrective action plan between external parties based on the severity of findings

D.

To develop and provide periodic reporting to management based on TPRM results

Question # 2

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the accountabilities in a three lines of defense model?

A.

The second line of defense is management within the business unit

B.

The first line of defense is the risk or compliance team that provides an oversight or governance function

C.

The third line of defense is an assurance function that has independence from the business unit

D.

The third line of defense must be limited to an external assessment firm

Question # 3

Which statement is FALSE regarding problem or issue management?

A.

Problems or issues are the root cause of an actual or potential incident

B.

Problem or issue management involves managing workarounds or known errors

C.

Problems or issues typically lead to systemic failures

D.

Problem or issue management may reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents

Question # 4

Which type of external event does NOT trigger an organization ta prompt a third party contract provisions review?

A.

Change in company point of contact

B.

Business continuity event

C.

Data breach/privacy incident

D.

Change in regulations

Question # 5

Which statement is FALSE when describing the differences between security vulnerabilities and security defects?

A.

A security defect is a security flaw identified in an application due to poor coding practices

B.

Security defects should be treated as exploitable vulnerabilities

C.

Security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous

D.

A security defect can become a security vulnerability if undetected after migration into production

Question # 6

Which statement is FALSE regarding the foundational requirements of a well-defined third party risk management program?

A.

We conduct onsite or virtual assessments for all third parties

B.

We have defined senior and executive management accountabilities for oversight of our TPRM program

C.

We have established vendor risk ratings and classifications based on a tiered hierarchy

D.

We have established Management and Board-level reporting to enable risk-based decisionmaking

Question # 7

When defining due diligence requirements for the set of vendors that host web applications which of the following is typically NOT part of evaluating the vendor ' s patch

management controls?

A.

The capability of the vendor to apply priority patching of high-risk systems

B.

Established procedures for testing of patches, service packs, and hot fixes prior to installation

C.

A documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications

D.

The existence of a formal process for evaluation and prioritization of known vulnerabilities

Question # 8

Which of the following is a component of evaluating a third party ' s use of Remote Access within their information security policy?

A.

Maintaining blocked IP address ranges

B.

Reviewing the testing and deployment procedures to networking components

C.

Providing guidelines to configuring ports on a router

D.

Identifying the use of multifactor authentication

Question # 9

Which statement BEST reflects the factors that help you determine the frequency of cyclical assessments?

A.

Vendor assessments should be conducted during onboarding and then be replaced by continuous monitoring

B.

Vendor assessment frequency should be based on the level of risk and criticality of the vendor to your operations as determined by their vendor risk score

C.

Vendor assessments should be scheduled based on the type of services/products provided

D.

Vendor assessment frequency may need to be changed if the vendor has disclosed a data breach

Question # 10

Which statement BEST represents the roles and responsibilities for managing corrective actions upon completion of an onsite or virtual assessment?

A.

All findings and remediation plans should be reviewed with internal audit prior to issuing the assessment report

B.

All findings and remediation plans should be reviewed with the vendor prior to sharing results with the line of business

C.

All findings and need for remediation should be reviewed with the line of business for risk acceptance prior to sharing the remediation plan with the vendor

D.

All findings should be shared with the vendor as quickly as possible so that remediation steps can be taken as quickly as possible

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