An ESD strap, also known as an antistatic wrist strap, is a device that prevents electrostatic discharge (ESD) from damaging sensitive electronic components such as RAM. ESD is the sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different electrical charges, which can cause permanent damage or malfunction to electronic devices. An ESD strap connects the technician’s wrist to a grounded surface, such as a metal case or a mat, and equalizes the electrical potential between the technician and the device. Battery backup, thermal paste, and consistent power are not devices that can protect against ESD.

Verifying warranty status with the vendor is the most logical next step in the remediation process after determining that a motherboard has failed. A warranty is a guarantee from the vendor that covers the repair or replacement of defective or faulty products within a specified period of time. Verifying warranty status with the vendor can help the technician determine if the motherboard is eligible for warranty service and what steps to take to obtain it. Escalating the issue to Tier 2, replacing the motherboard, and purchasing another PC are not the most logical next steps in the remediation process.

Incremental backups are backups that only include the changes made since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. Incremental backups minimize the capacity of storage used and are often used in conjunction with synthetic full backups, which are backups that combine a full backup and subsequent incremental backups into a single backup set.

Redeeming the included activation key card for a product key is the correct way to apply a Windows 10 Pro license to a computer that has Windows 10 Home installed. The activation key card is a physical or digital card that contains a 25-digit code that can be used to activate Windows 10 Pro online or by phone. Copying the windows.lie file, inserting a Windows USB hardware dongle and activating with the digital license are not valid methods of applying a Windows 10 Pro license. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/how-to-upgrade-windows-10-home-to-pro https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a

Disk Cleanup is a tool that can free up some space on a system drive that is nearly full. It can delete temporary files, cached files, recycle bin files, old system files and other unnecessary data. Resource Monitor is a tool that shows the network activity of each process on a Windows machine. Disk Defragment is a tool that optimizes the performance of a hard drive by rearranging the data into contiguous blocks. Disk Management is a tool that allows creating, formatting, resizing and deleting partitions on a hard drive. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/how-to-use-disk-cleanup https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a

The technician can close unnecessary applications and turn on autorotation to resolve these issues with minimal impact. Autorotation can help the device to switch between portrait and landscape modes automatically. Closing unnecessary applications can help to free up the device’s memory and reduce the device’s temperature1

To best resolve this issue, the executive should set AirDrop so that transfers are only accepted from known contacts (option A). AirDrop is a feature on iOS devices that allows users to share files, photos, and other data between Apple devices. By setting AirDrop so that it only accepts transfers from known contacts, the executive can ensure that unwanted files and photos are not sent to their device. Additionally, the executive should ensure that the AirDrop setting is only enabled when it is necessary, as this will protect their device from any unwanted files and photos.

The technician should guide the user to update Windows through the built-in " Check for Updates " feature. This can be done by having the user click in the Search field, type " Check for Updates " , and then press the Enter key. This will bring up the Windows Update function, which will search for any available updates and give the user the option to install them.

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-a-220-1102-exam-objectives-(3-0)

WPA2/AES (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2/Advanced Encryption Standard) is a wireless security standard that supports enterprise mode, which allows a user to use login credentials (username and password) to authenticate to available corporate SSIDs (service set identifiers). TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) and Kerberos are network authentication protocols, but they are not wireless security features. Preshared key is another wireless security feature, but it does not use login credentials. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/wireless-security-standards https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a

Preserving chain of custody is a concept that refers to the documentation and tracking of who handled, accessed, modified, or transferred a piece of evidence, when, where, why, and how. Preserving chain of custody can help establish the authenticity, integrity, and reliability of the evidence, as well as prevent tampering, alteration, or loss of the evidence. An administrator who documented the movement of the evidence demonstrated the concept of preserving chain of custody. Implementing data protection policies, informing law enforcement, and creating a summary of the incident are not concepts that describe the action of documenting the movement of the evidence.

 Instructing the user to disconnect the Wi-Fi is the first action the technician should take if they suspect a rogue access point. A rogue access point is an unauthorized wireless network that could be used to intercept or manipulate network traffic, compromise security, or launch attacks. Disconnecting the Wi-Fi would prevent further exposure or damage to the user’s device or data. Restarting the wireless adapter, launching the browser, or running the antivirus software are possible actions to take after disconnecting the Wi-Fi, but they are not as urgent or effective as the first step. References:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 22

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 456

Detailed Explanation with Core 2 References:BitLocker To Go is a feature in Windows that allows for encryption of removable drives to protect sensitive information. Training staff on BitLocker To Go ensures that if a removable drive is lost or stolen, it will be password-protected and encrypted, making the data inaccessible to unauthorized individuals. This aligns with Core 2 objectives related to security measures for data-at-rest encryption and best practices for safeguarding information (CompTIA A+ Core 2 Objective 2.6)​.

When a system administrator discovers a user ' s PC running slowly with 100% CPU utilization, it often indicates that the system is being used for unauthorized purposes, such as being part of a botnet attack. Here’s why:

Botnet attack: Botnets are networks of computers infected with malware and controlled by an attacker. These infected computers (bots) are often used to carry out tasks like sending spam or participating in Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks. The high CPU utilization and resource usage indicate that the computer might be performing tasks dictated by the botnet controller.

Firewall activities: While firewall activities can use some resources, they generally do not cause sustained high CPU utilization.

DDoS attack: DDoS attacks target external systems by overwhelming them with traffic. A system participating in a DDoS might have high network usage, but the primary symptom on the user’s PC would be high network activity, not necessarily CPU usage.

Keylogger attack: Keyloggers record keystrokes and generally do not cause high CPU utilization. They are more stealthy and have minimal resource footprints.

Malware infections are commonly prevented by having updated endpoint protection software (antivirus/antimalware). Keeping this software updated ensures it can detect and remove the latest threats effectively before they cause damage. Restore points and preinstallation environments are recovery methods but do not prevent malware infections. Disabling System Restore removes the ability to roll back system changes, which is counterproductive. Endpoint protection software is a fundamental security control in Core 2 security domains and is critical in maintaining system integrity and preventing infections. Regular updates to antivirus definitions and endpoint software are a proactive defense aligned with security best practices covered in the official CompTIA materials.

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) (Option B) is a network protocol that allows users to authenticate using their network credentials, such as usernames and passwords, typically stored in a central directory like Active Directory. It ensures that users can log in to the Wi-Fi using their existing network credentials.

AES (Option A) is an encryption standard but does not handle authentication.

TKIP (Option C) is a deprecated encryption protocol and not related to network login management.

WPA3 (Option D) is the latest Wi-Fi security standard but does not specifically handle centralized login management like RADIUS does.

CompTIA A+ Core 2 References:

2.2 - Compare and contrast wireless security protocols and authentication methods, including RADIUS​​.

The correct answer is B. Scripted Deployment.

Scripted deployment is the most effective method for remotely installing software across multiple devices, including remote employees’ machines.

IT departments commonly use scripting tools like PowerShell, Bash, or batch scripts, along with software deployment solutions like Microsoft SCCM, Intune, or Group Policy.

This method ensures automation, consistency, and remote execution without requiring physical access to each device.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Clone – Cloning is used to replicate entire system images but is not practical for deploying individual software programs remotely.

C. In-place – This term typically refers to in-place upgrades or updates to existing software, not new software deployment across multiple machines.

D. Image – Imaging refers to creating a full system image, including the OS and applications. While useful for deploying new computers, it is not ideal for remotely installing software on existing systems.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Reference:

Objective 3.3 – Given a scenario, use remote access technologies.

Objective 4.2 – Given a scenario, implement cybersecurity best practices.

When disposing of e-waste, it is important to ensure that the data on the equipment is securely destroyed and that the disposal process complies with environmental regulations.

Non-disclosure agreement: Relates to confidentiality, not disposal.

Certification of destruction: The correct document verifying that the equipment has been disposed of in accordance with regulations and standards, ensuring data is irretrievably destroyed.

Low-level formatting: A method to wipe data but does not guarantee compliance with e-waste disposal regulations.

Shredding/drilling: Physical destruction methods that might be used, but certification of destruction is the documentation needed.