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Question # 4

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

Full Access
Question # 5

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

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Question # 6

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

A.

Activity network diagrams

B.

Affinity diagrams

C.

Matrix diagrams

D.

Interrelationship digraphs

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Question # 7

Which item is a cost of conformance?

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

Full Access
Question # 8

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

Full Access
Question # 9

Which items are components of a project management plan?

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

Full Access
Question # 10

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

Full Access
Question # 11

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

Full Access
Question # 12

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

Full Access
Question # 13

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

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Question # 14

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

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Question # 15

Portfolio Management is management of:

A.

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

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Question # 16

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

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Question # 17

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

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Question # 18

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

Full Access
Question # 19

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

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Question # 20

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

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Question # 21

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

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Question # 22

Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:

A.

tangible

B.

targeted

C.

organized

D.

variable

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Question # 23

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

A.

project documents updates.

B.

project management plan updates.

C.

change requests.

D.

work performance information.

Full Access
Question # 24

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

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Question # 25

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

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Question # 26

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

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Question # 27

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

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Question # 28

What is the total float of the critical path?

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

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Question # 29

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

A.

It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.

B.

It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.

C.

It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.

D.

It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.

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Question # 30

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

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Question # 31

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

A.

Transference

B.

Avoidance

C.

Exploring

D.

Mitigation

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Question # 32

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Question # 33

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

Full Access
Question # 34

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

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Question # 35

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

Full Access
Question # 36

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

Full Access
Question # 37

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

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Question # 38

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

A.

Ishikawa

B.

Milestone

C.

Influence

D.

Decision tree

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Question # 39

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

A.

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B.

In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

C.

In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

D.

In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

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Question # 40

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

Full Access
Question # 41

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

Full Access
Question # 42

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

Full Access
Question # 43

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

Full Access
Question # 44

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

Full Access
Question # 45

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

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Question # 46

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Question # 47

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

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Question # 48

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:

A.

quality audits.

B.

process analysis.

C.

benchmarking.

D.

inspection.

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Question # 49

Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A.

Cyclic

B.

Progressive

C.

Repetitive

D.

Iterative

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Question # 50

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Full Access
Question # 51

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

Full Access
Question # 52

A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?

A.

There is a cost underrun.

B.

There is a cost overrun.

C.

The project may not meet the deadline.

D.

The project is 20 days behind schedule.

Full Access
Question # 53

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

Full Access
Question # 54

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

Full Access
Question # 55

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

Full Access
Question # 56

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Full Access
Question # 57

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

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Question # 58

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

Full Access
Question # 59

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Full Access
Question # 60

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

Full Access
Question # 61

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

Full Access
Question # 62

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Full Access
Question # 63

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Full Access
Question # 64

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

Full Access
Question # 65

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Question # 66

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

Full Access
Question # 67

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Full Access
Question # 68

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Full Access
Question # 69

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

Full Access
Question # 70

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Question # 71

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

Full Access
Question # 72

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

Full Access
Question # 73

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

Full Access
Question # 74

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

A.

prototypes.

B.

expert judgment.

C.

alternatives identification.

D.

product analysis.

Full Access
Question # 75

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Full Access
Question # 76

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Full Access
Question # 77

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Full Access
Question # 78

The diagram below is an example of a:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Full Access
Question # 79

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Full Access
Question # 80

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

Full Access
Question # 81

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

Full Access
Question # 82

Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

A.

Balanced matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

Full Access
Question # 83

Which element does a project charter contain?

A.

Management reserves

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Stakeholder list

D.

Stakeholder register

Full Access
Question # 84

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A.

expert judgment

B.

seller proposals

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Full Access
Question # 85

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

Full Access
Question # 86

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

Full Access
Question # 87

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Full Access
Question # 88

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

Full Access
Question # 89

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

Full Access
Question # 90

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Full Access
Question # 91

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

Full Access
Question # 92

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Full Access
Question # 93

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

Full Access
Question # 94

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

A.

Work performance reports.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Activity resource requirements.

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Full Access
Question # 95

An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

A.

A process improvement plan,

B.

Quality control measurements.

C.

Work performance information,

D.

The project management plan.

Full Access
Question # 96

The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Full Access
Question # 97

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Full Access
Question # 98

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

Full Access
Question # 99

An element of the project scope statement is:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

Full Access
Question # 100

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

Full Access
Question # 101

In a project, total float measures the:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

Full Access
Question # 102

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

Full Access
Question # 103

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

Full Access
Question # 104

Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Purchase order

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Bidder conference

Full Access
Question # 105

Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Affinity diagram

C.

Tree diagram

D.

Activity network diagram

Full Access