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Question # 4

What is the name of the protocol use to set up and manage Security Associations (SA) for IP Security (IPSec)?

A.

Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

B.

Secure Key Exchange Mechanism

C.

Oakley

D.

Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol

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Question # 5

Which is NOT a suitable method for distributing certificate revocation information?

A.

CA revocation mailing list

B.

Delta CRL

C.

OCSP (online certificate status protocol)

D.

Distribution point CRL

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Question # 6

Which of the following offers security to wireless communications?

A.

S-WAP

B.

WTLS

C.

WSP

D.

WDP

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Question # 7

Which of the following issues is not addressed by digital signatures?

A.

nonrepudiation

B.

authentication

C.

data integrity

D.

denial-of-service

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Question # 8

What enables users to validate each other's certificate when they are certified under different certification hierarchies?

A.

Cross-certification

B.

Multiple certificates

C.

Redundant certification authorities

D.

Root certification authorities

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Question # 9

Which of the following is not an example of a block cipher?

A.

Skipjack

B.

IDEA

C.

Blowfish

D.

RC4

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Question # 10

What is used to bind a document to its creation at a particular time?

A.

Network Time Protocol (NTP)

B.

Digital Signature

C.

Digital Timestamp

D.

Certification Authority (CA)

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Question # 11

What is NOT true about a one-way hashing function?

A.

It provides authentication of the message

B.

A hash cannot be reverse to get the message used to create the hash

C.

The results of a one-way hash is a message digest

D.

It provides integrity of the message

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Question # 12

Which of the following statements pertaining to Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is false?

A.

The SSL protocol was developed by Netscape to secure Internet client-server transactions.

B.

The SSL protocol's primary use is to authenticate the client to the server using public key cryptography and digital certificates.

C.

Web pages using the SSL protocol start with HTTPS

D.

SSL can be used with applications such as Telnet, FTP and email protocols.

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Question # 13

Which of the following can be best defined as computing techniques for inseparably embedding unobtrusive marks or labels as bits in digital data and for detecting or extracting the marks later?

A.

Steganography

B.

Digital watermarking

C.

Digital enveloping

D.

Digital signature

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Question # 14

What is the role of IKE within the IPsec protocol?

A.

peer authentication and key exchange

B.

data encryption

C.

data signature

D.

enforcing quality of service

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Question # 15

The RSA algorithm is an example of what type of cryptography?

A.

Asymmetric Key.

B.

Symmetric Key.

C.

Secret Key.

D.

Private Key.

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Question # 16

What key size is used by the Clipper Chip?

A.

40 bits

B.

56 bits

C.

64 bits

D.

80 bits

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Question # 17

How many rounds are used by DES?

A.

16

B.

32

C.

64

D.

48

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Question # 18

In a known plaintext attack, the cryptanalyst has knowledge of which of the following?

A.

the ciphertext and the key

B.

the plaintext and the secret key

C.

both the plaintext and the associated ciphertext of several messages

D.

the plaintext and the algorithm

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Question # 19

Which of the following can best be defined as a cryptanalysis technique in which the analyst tries to determine the key from knowledge of some plaintext-ciphertext pairs?

A.

A known-plaintext attack

B.

A known-algorithm attack

C.

A chosen-ciphertext attack

D.

A chosen-plaintext attack

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Question # 20

Where parties do not have a shared secret and large quantities of sensitive information must be passed, the most efficient means of transferring information is to use Hybrid Encryption Methods. What does this mean?

A.

Use of public key encryption to secure a secret key, and message encryption using the secret key.

B.

Use of the recipient's public key for encryption and decryption based on the recipient's private key.

C.

Use of software encryption assisted by a hardware encryption accelerator.

D.

Use of elliptic curve encryption.

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Question # 21

Which of the following encryption algorithms does not deal with discrete logarithms?

A.

El Gamal

B.

Diffie-Hellman

C.

RSA

D.

Elliptic Curve

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Question # 22

What is the primary role of smartcards in a PKI?

A.

Transparent renewal of user keys

B.

Easy distribution of the certificates between the users

C.

Fast hardware encryption of the raw data

D.

Tamper resistant, mobile storage and application of private keys of the users

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Question # 23

What kind of Encryption technology does SSL utilize?

A.

Secret or Symmetric key

B.

Hybrid (both Symmetric and Asymmetric)

C.

Public Key

D.

Private key

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Question # 24

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding a digital signature?

A.

It is a method used to encrypt confidential data.

B.

It is the art of transferring handwritten signature to electronic media.

C.

It allows the recipient of data to prove the source and integrity of data.

D.

It can be used as a signature system and a cryptosystem.

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Question # 25

What is the maximum allowable key size of the Rijndael encryption algorithm?

A.

128 bits

B.

192 bits

C.

256 bits

D.

512 bits

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Question # 26

Considerations of privacy, invasiveness, and psychological and physical comfort when using the system are important elements for which of the following?

A.

Accountability of biometrics systems

B.

Acceptability of biometrics systems

C.

Availability of biometrics systems

D.

Adaptability of biometrics systems

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Question # 27

What does it mean to say that sensitivity labels are "incomparable"?

A.

The number of classification in the two labels is different.

B.

Neither label contains all the classifications of the other.

C.

the number of categories in the two labels are different.

D.

Neither label contains all the categories of the other.

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Question # 28

Which of the following is NOT a factor related to Access Control?

A.

integrity

B.

authenticity

C.

confidentiality

D.

availability

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Question # 29

The Computer Security Policy Model the Orange Book is based on is which of the following?

A.

Bell-LaPadula

B.

Data Encryption Standard

C.

Kerberos

D.

Tempest

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Question # 30

What is called the percentage of valid subjects that are falsely rejected by a Biometric Authentication system?

A.

False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error

B.

False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error

C.

Crossover Error Rate (CER)

D.

True Rejection Rate (TRR) or Type III Error

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Question # 31

Which of the following exemplifies proper separation of duties?

A.

Operators are not permitted modify the system time.

B.

Programmers are permitted to use the system console.

C.

Console operators are permitted to mount tapes and disks.

D.

Tape operators are permitted to use the system console.

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Question # 32

Which access control model was proposed for enforcing access control in government and military applications?

A.

Bell-LaPadula model

B.

Biba model

C.

Sutherland model

D.

Brewer-Nash model

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Question # 33

An alternative to using passwords for authentication in logical or technical access control is:

A.

manage without passwords

B.

biometrics

C.

not there

D.

use of them for physical access control

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Question # 34

Guards are appropriate whenever the function required by the security program involves which of the following?

A.

The use of discriminating judgment

B.

The use of physical force

C.

The operation of access control devices

D.

The need to detect unauthorized access

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Question # 35

What is called an automated means of identifying or authenticating the identity of a living person based on physiological or behavioral characteristics?

A.

Biometrics

B.

Micrometrics

C.

Macrometrics

D.

MicroBiometrics

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Question # 36

Access Control techniques do not include which of the following?

A.

Rule-Based Access Controls

B.

Role-Based Access Control

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Random Number Based Access Control

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Question # 37

What is the primary role of smartcards in a PKI?

A.

Transparent renewal of user keys

B.

Easy distribution of the certificates between the users

C.

Fast hardware encryption of the raw data

D.

Tamper resistant, mobile storage and application of private keys of the users

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Question # 38

Which of the following protection devices is used for spot protection within a few inches of the object, rather than for overall room security monitoring?

A.

Wave pattern motion detectors

B.

Capacitance detectors

C.

Field-powered devices

D.

Audio detectors

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Question # 39

Which of the following describes the major disadvantage of many Single Sign-On (SSO) implementations?

A.

Once an individual obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, they have access to all resources within the environment that the account has access to.

B.

The initial logon process is cumbersome to discourage potential intruders.

C.

Once a user obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, they only need to logon to some applications.

D.

Once a user obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, he has to logout from all other systems

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Question # 40

A potential problem related to the physical installation of the Iris Scanner in regards to the usage of the iris pattern within a biometric system is:

A.

concern that the laser beam may cause eye damage

B.

the iris pattern changes as a person grows older.

C.

there is a relatively high rate of false accepts.

D.

the optical unit must be positioned so that the sun does not shine into the aperture.

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Question # 41

Which of the following does not apply to system-generated passwords?

A.

Passwords are harder to remember for users.

B.

If the password-generating algorithm gets to be known, the entire system is in jeopardy.

C.

Passwords are more vulnerable to brute force and dictionary attacks.

D.

Passwords are harder to guess for attackers.

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Question # 42

In biometrics, the "one-to-one" search used to verify claim to an identity made by a person is considered:

A.

Authentication

B.

Identification

C.

Auditing

D.

Authorization

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Question # 43

The "vulnerability of a facility" to damage or attack may be assessed by all of the following except:

A.

Inspection

B.

History of losses

C.

Security controls

D.

security budget

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Question # 44

This baseline sets certain thresholds for specific errors or mistakes allowed and the amount of these occurrences that can take place before it is considered suspicious?

A.

Checkpoint level

B.

Ceiling level

C.

Clipping level

D.

Threshold level

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Question # 45

What Orange Book security rating is reserved for systems that have been evaluated but fail to meet the criteria and requirements of the higher divisions?

A.

A

B.

D

C.

E

D.

F

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Question # 46

What does the Clark-Wilson security model focus on?

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Integrity

C.

Accountability

D.

Availability

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Question # 47

In the Bell-LaPadula model, the Star-property is also called:

A.

The simple security property

B.

The confidentiality property

C.

The confinement property

D.

The tranquility property

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Question # 48

Which type of attack involves impersonating a user or a system?

A.

Smurfing attack

B.

Spoofing attack

C.

Spamming attack

D.

Sniffing attack

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Question # 49

What can be defined as an event that could cause harm to the information systems?

A.

A risk

B.

A threat

C.

A vulnerability

D.

A weakness

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Question # 50

A momentary high voltage is a:

A.

spike

B.

blackout

C.

surge

D.

fault

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Question # 51

To protect and/or restore lost, corrupted, or deleted information, thereby preserving the data integrity and availability is the purpose of:

A.

Remote journaling.

B.

Database shadowing.

C.

A tape backup method.

D.

Mirroring.

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Question # 52

Risk mitigation and risk reduction controls for providing information security are classified within three main categories, which of the following are being used?

A.

preventive, corrective, and administrative

B.

detective, corrective, and physical

C.

Physical, technical, and administrative

D.

Administrative, operational, and logical

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Question # 53

Which of the following tape formats can be used to backup data systems in addition to its original intended audio uses?

A.

Digital Video Tape (DVT).

B.

Digital Analog Tape (DAT).

C.

Digital Voice Tape (DVT).

D.

Digital Audio Tape (DAT).

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Question # 54

Which of the following best describes what would be expected at a "hot site"?

A.

Computers, climate control, cables and peripherals

B.

Computers and peripherals

C.

Computers and dedicated climate control systems.

D.

Dedicated climate control systems

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Question # 55

When you update records in multiple locations or you make a copy of the whole database at a remote location as a way to achieve the proper level of fault-tolerance and redundancy, it is knows as?

A.

Shadowing

B.

Data mirroring

C.

Backup

D.

Archiving

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Question # 56

Another example of Computer Incident Response Team (CIRT) activities is:

A.

Management of the netware logs, including collection, retention, review, and analysis of data

B.

Management of the network logs, including collection and analysis of data

C.

Management of the network logs, including review and analysis of data

D.

Management of the network logs, including collection, retention, review, and analysis of data

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Question # 57

Which of the following statements regarding an off-site information processing facility is TRUE?

A.

It should have the same amount of physical access restrictions as the primary processing site.

B.

It should be located in proximity to the originating site so that it can quickly be made operational.

C.

It should be easily identified from the outside so in the event of an emergency it can be easily found.

D.

Need not have the same level of environmental monitoring as the originating site since this would be cost prohibitive.

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Question # 58

Which of the following rules pertaining to a Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan is incorrect?

A.

In order to facilitate recovery, a single plan should cover all locations.

B.

There should be requirements to form a committee to decide a course of action. These decisions should be made ahead of time and incorporated into the plan.

C.

In its procedures and tasks, the plan should refer to functions, not specific individuals.

D.

Critical vendors should be contacted ahead of time to validate equipment can be obtained in a timely manner.

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Question # 59

Which of the following backup methods is primarily run when time and tape space permits, and is used for the system archive or baselined tape sets?

A.

full backup method.

B.

incremental backup method.

C.

differential backup method.

D.

tape backup method.

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Question # 60

Which approach to a security program ensures people responsible for protecting the company's assets are DRIVING the program?

A.

The Delphi approach

B.

The top-down approach

C.

The bottom-up approach

D.

The technology approach

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Question # 61

Which of the following is an example of an active attack?

A.

Traffic analysis

B.

Scanning

C.

Eavesdropping

D.

Wiretapping

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Question # 62

Which of the following backup method must be made regardless of whether Differential or Incremental methods are used?

A.

Full Backup Method.

B.

Incremental backup method.

C.

Supplemental backup method.

D.

Tape backup method.

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Question # 63

What is the most correct choice below when talking about the steps to resume normal operation at the primary site after the green light has been given by the salvage team?

A.

The most critical operations are moved from alternate site to primary site before others

B.

Operation may be carried by a completely different team than disaster recovery team

C.

The least critical functions should be moved back first

D.

You moves items back in the same order as the categories document in your plan or exactly in the same order as you did on your way to the alternate site

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Question # 64

When a possible intrusion into your organization's information system has been detected, which of the following actions should be performed first?

A.

Eliminate all means of intruder access.

B.

Contain the intrusion.

C.

Determine to what extent systems and data are compromised.

D.

Communicate with relevant parties.

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Question # 65

Which of the following will a Business Impact Analysis NOT identify?

A.

Areas that would suffer the greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster.

B.

Systems critical to the survival of the enterprise.

C.

The names of individuals to be contacted during a disaster.

D.

The outage time that can be tolerated by the enterprise as a result of a disaster.

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Question # 66

What is the PRIMARY goal of incident handling?

A.

Successfully retrieve all evidence that can be used to prosecute

B.

Improve the company's ability to be prepared for threats and disasters

C.

Improve the company's disaster recovery plan

D.

Contain and repair any damage caused by an event.

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Question # 67

When referring to a computer crime investigation, which of the following would be the MOST important step required in order to preserve and maintain a proper chain of custody of evidence:

A.

Evidence has to be collected in accordance with all laws and all legal regulations.

B.

Law enforcement officials should be contacted for advice on how and when to collect critical information.

C.

Verifiable documentation indicating the who, what, when, where, and how the evidence was handled should be available.

D.

Log files containing information regarding an intrusion are retained for at least as long as normal business records, and longer in the case of an ongoing investigation.

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Question # 68

Which backup method only copies files that have been recently added or changed and also leaves the archive bit unchanged?

A.

Full backup method

B.

Incremental backup method

C.

Fast backup method

D.

Differential backup method

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Question # 69

Which of the following is NOT a transaction redundancy implementation?

A.

on-site mirroring

B.

Electronic Vaulting

C.

Remote Journaling

D.

Database Shadowing

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Question # 70

While using IPsec, the ESP and AH protocols both provides integrity services. However when using AH, some special attention needs to be paid if one of the peers uses NAT for address translation service. Which of the items below would affects the use of AH and it´s Integrity Check Value (ICV) the most?

A.

Key session exchange

B.

Packet Header Source or Destination address

C.

VPN cryptographic key size

D.

Crypotographic algorithm used

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Question # 71

In the UTP category rating, the tighter the wind:

A.

the higher the rating and its resistance against interference and crosstalk.

B.

the slower the rating and its resistance against interference and attenuation.

C.

the shorter the rating and its resistance against interference and attenuation.

D.

the longer the rating and its resistance against interference and attenuation.

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Question # 72

Which of the following protocols operates at the session layer (layer 5)?

A.

RPC

B.

IGMP

C.

LPD

D.

SPX

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Question # 73

The basic language of modems and dial-up remote access systems is:

A.

Asynchronous Communication.

B.

Synchronous Communication.

C.

Asynchronous Interaction.

D.

Synchronous Interaction.

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Question # 74

What is defined as the manner in which the network devices are organized to facilitate communications?

A.

LAN transmission methods

B.

LAN topologies

C.

LAN transmission protocols

D.

LAN media access methods

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Question # 75

What is also known as 10Base5?

A.

Thinnet

B.

Thicknet

C.

ARCnet

D.

UTP

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Question # 76

All hosts on an IP network have a logical ID called a(n):

A.

IP address.

B.

MAC address.

C.

TCP address.

D.

Datagram address.

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Question # 77

Which cable technology refers to the CAT3 and CAT5 categories?

A.

Coaxial cables

B.

Fiber Optic cables

C.

Axial cables

D.

Twisted Pair cables

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Question # 78

What is the main difference between a Smurf and a Fraggle attack?

A.

A Smurf attack is ICMP-based and a Fraggle attack is UDP-based.

B.

A Smurf attack is UDP-based and a Fraggle attack is TCP-based.

C.

Smurf attack packets cannot be spoofed.

D.

A Smurf attack is UDP-based and a Fraggle attack is ICMP-based.

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Question # 79

Which of the following is true of network security?

A.

A firewall is a not a necessity in today's connected world.

B.

A firewall is a necessity in today's connected world.

C.

A whitewall is a necessity in today's connected world.

D.

A black firewall is a necessity in today's connected world.

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Question # 80

Which of the following can best eliminate dial-up access through a Remote Access Server as a hacking vector?

A.

Using a TACACS+ server.

B.

Installing the Remote Access Server outside the firewall and forcing legitimate users to authenticate to the firewall.

C.

Setting modem ring count to at least 5.

D.

Only attaching modems to non-networked hosts.

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Question # 81

How would an IP spoofing attack be best classified?

A.

Session hijacking attack

B.

Passive attack

C.

Fragmentation attack

D.

Sniffing attack

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Question # 82

Which of the following elements of telecommunications is not used in assuring confidentiality?

A.

Network security protocols

B.

Network authentication services

C.

Data encryption services

D.

Passwords

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Question # 83

What is called an attack where the attacker spoofs the source IP address in an ICMP ECHO broadcast packet so it seems to have originated at the victim's system, in order to flood it with REPLY packets?

A.

SYN Flood attack

B.

Smurf attack

C.

Ping of Death attack

D.

Denial of Service (DOS) attack

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Question # 84

What layer of the OSI/ISO model does Point-to-point tunnelling protocol (PPTP) work at?

A.

Data link layer

B.

Transport layer

C.

Session layer

D.

Network layer

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Question # 85

A group of independent servers, which are managed as a single system, that provides higher availability, easier manageability, and greater scalability is:

A.

server cluster

B.

client cluster

C.

guest cluster

D.

host cluster

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Question # 86

Which of the following protocols is not implemented at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol model?

A.

User datagram protocol (UDP)

B.

Internet protocol (IP)

C.

Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)

D.

Internet control message protocol (ICMP)

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Question # 87

A packet containing a long string of NOP's followed by a command is usually indicative of what?

A.

A syn scan.

B.

A half-port scan.

C.

A buffer overflow attack.

D.

A packet destined for the network's broadcast address.

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Question # 88

A circuit level proxy is ___________________ when compared to an application level proxy.

A.

lower in processing overhead.

B.

more difficult to maintain.

C.

more secure.

D.

slower.

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Question # 89

Which of the following statements pertaining to packet filtering is incorrect?

A.

It is based on ACLs.

B.

It is not application dependant.

C.

It operates at the network layer.

D.

It keeps track of the state of a connection.

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Question # 90

Which of the following is immune to the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI) and therefore has a much longer effective usable length?

A.

Fiber Optic cable

B.

Coaxial cable

C.

Twisted Pair cable

D.

Axial cable

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Question # 91

What can best be defined as a strongly protected computer that is in a network protected by a firewall (or is part of a firewall) and is the only host (or one of only a few hosts) in the network that can be directly accessed from networks on the other side of the firewall?

A.

A bastion host

B.

A screened subnet

C.

A dual-homed host

D.

A proxy server

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Question # 92

Each data packet is assigned the IP address of the sender and the IP address of the:

A.

recipient.

B.

host.

C.

node.

D.

network.

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Question # 93

Which of the following is an issue with signature-based intrusion detection systems?

A.

Only previously identified attack signatures are detected.

B.

Signature databases must be augmented with inferential elements.

C.

It runs only on the windows operating system

D.

Hackers can circumvent signature evaluations.

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Question # 94

Several analysis methods can be employed by an IDS, each with its own strengths and weaknesses, and their applicability to any given situation should be carefully considered. There are two basic IDS analysis methods that exists. Which of the basic method is more prone to false positive?

A.

Pattern Matching (also called signature analysis)

B.

Anomaly Detection

C.

Host-based intrusion detection

D.

Network-based intrusion detection

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Question # 95

What IDS approach relies on a database of known attacks?

A.

Signature-based intrusion detection

B.

Statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection

C.

Behavior-based intrusion detection

D.

Network-based intrusion detection

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Question # 96

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection system?

A.

it may truly detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

B.

it may falsely detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

C.

it may correctly detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

D.

it may loosely detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

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Question # 97

Which of the following tools is NOT likely to be used by a hacker?

A.

Nessus

B.

Saint

C.

Tripwire

D.

Nmap

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Question # 98

Which of the following monitors network traffic in real time?

A.

network-based IDS

B.

host-based IDS

C.

application-based IDS

D.

firewall-based IDS

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Question # 99

Which of the following is required in order to provide accountability?

A.

Authentication

B.

Integrity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Audit trails

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Question # 100

How often should a Business Continuity Plan be reviewed?

A.

At least once a month

B.

At least every six months

C.

At least once a year

D.

At least Quarterly

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Question # 101

Attributes that characterize an attack are stored for reference using which of the following Intrusion Detection System (IDS) ?

A.

signature-based IDS

B.

statistical anomaly-based IDS

C.

event-based IDS

D.

inferent-based IDS

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Question # 102

Which of the following would assist the most in Host Based intrusion detection?

A.

audit trails.

B.

access control lists.

C.

security clearances

D.

host-based authentication

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Question # 103

Attributable data should be:

A.

always traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data

B.

sometimes traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data

C.

never traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data

D.

often traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data

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Question # 104

Which of the following are the two MOST common implementations of Intrusion Detection Systems?

A.

Server-based and Host-based.

B.

Network-based and Guest-based.

C.

Network-based and Client-based.

D.

Network-based and Host-based.

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Question # 105

Which of the following is not a preventive operational control?

A.

Protecting laptops, personal computers and workstations.

B.

Controlling software viruses.

C.

Controlling data media access and disposal.

D.

Conducting security awareness and technical training.

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Question # 106

Which of the following would NOT violate the Due Diligence concept?

A.

Security policy being outdated

B.

Data owners not laying out the foundation of data protection

C.

Network administrator not taking mandatory two-week vacation as planned

D.

Latest security patches for servers being installed as per the Patch Management process

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Question # 107

Who can best decide what are the adequate technical security controls in a computer-based application system in regards to the protection of the data being used, the criticality of the data, and it's sensitivity level ?

A.

System Auditor

B.

Data or Information Owner

C.

System Manager

D.

Data or Information user

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Question # 108

The viewing of recorded events after the fact using a closed-circuit TV camera is considered a

A.

Preventative control.

B.

Detective control

C.

Compensating control

D.

Corrective control

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Question # 109

Which of the following types of Intrusion Detection Systems uses behavioral characteristics of a system’s operation or network traffic to draw conclusions on whether the traffic represents a risk to the network or host?

A.

Network-based ID systems.

B.

Anomaly Detection.

C.

Host-based ID systems.

D.

Signature Analysis.

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Question # 110

Due care is not related to:

A.

Good faith

B.

Prudent man

C.

Profit

D.

Best interest

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Question # 111

What is the primary goal of setting up a honeypot?

A.

To lure hackers into attacking unused systems

B.

To entrap and track down possible hackers

C.

To set up a sacrificial lamb on the network

D.

To know when certain types of attacks are in progress and to learn about attack techniques so the network can be fortified.

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Question # 112

Who is responsible for providing reports to the senior management on the effectiveness of the security controls?

A.

Information systems security professionals

B.

Data owners

C.

Data custodians

D.

Information systems auditors

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Question # 113

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental component of an alarm in an intrusion detection system?

A.

Communications

B.

Enunciator

C.

Sensor

D.

Response

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Question # 114

Which of the following Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) uses a database of attacks, known system vulnerabilities, monitoring current attempts to exploit those vulnerabilities, and then triggers an alarm if an attempt is found?

A.

Knowledge-Based ID System

B.

Application-Based ID System

C.

Host-Based ID System

D.

Network-Based ID System

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Question # 115

What setup should an administrator use for regularly testing the strength of user passwords?

A.

A networked workstation so that the live password database can easily be accessed by the cracking program.

B.

A networked workstation so the password database can easily be copied locally and processed by the cracking program.

C.

A standalone workstation on which the password database is copied and processed by the cracking program.

D.

A password-cracking program is unethical; therefore it should not be used.

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Question # 116

Which of the following technologies is a target of XSS or CSS (Cross-Site Scripting) attacks?

A.

Web Applications

B.

Intrusion Detection Systems

C.

Firewalls

D.

DNS Servers

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Question # 117

What best describes a scenario when an employee has been shaving off pennies from multiple accounts and depositing the funds into his own bank account?

A.

Data fiddling

B.

Data diddling

C.

Salami techniques

D.

Trojan horses

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Question # 118

What do the ILOVEYOU and Melissa virus attacks have in common?

A.

They are both denial-of-service (DOS) attacks.

B.

They have nothing in common.

C.

They are both masquerading attacks.

D.

They are both social engineering attacks.

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Question # 119

Crackers today are MOST often motivated by their desire to:

A.

Help the community in securing their networks.

B.

Seeing how far their skills will take them.

C.

Getting recognition for their actions.

D.

Gaining Money or Financial Gains.

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Question # 120

In computing what is the name of a non-self-replicating type of malware program containing malicious code that appears to have some useful purpose but also contains code that has a malicious or harmful purpose imbedded in it, when executed, carries out actions that are unknown to the person installing it, typically causing loss or theft of data, and possible system harm.

A.

virus

B.

worm

C.

Trojan horse.

D.

trapdoor

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Question # 121

Virus scanning and content inspection of SMIME encrypted e-mail without doing any further processing is:

A.

Not possible

B.

Only possible with key recovery scheme of all user keys

C.

It is possible only if X509 Version 3 certificates are used

D.

It is possible only by "brute force" decryption

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Question # 122

What is malware that can spread itself over open network connections?

A.

Worm

B.

Rootkit

C.

Adware

D.

Logic Bomb

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Question # 123

The high availability of multiple all-inclusive, easy-to-use hacking tools that do NOT require much technical knowledge has brought a growth in the number of which type of attackers?

A.

Black hats

B.

White hats

C.

Script kiddies

D.

Phreakers

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Question # 124

Which of the following computer crime is MORE often associated with INSIDERS?

A.

IP spoofing

B.

Password sniffing

C.

Data diddling

D.

Denial of service (DOS)

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Question # 125

Java is not:

A.

Object-oriented.

B.

Distributed.

C.

Architecture Specific.

D.

Multithreaded.

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Question # 126

Which virus category has the capability of changing its own code, making it harder to detect by anti-virus software?

A.

Stealth viruses

B.

Polymorphic viruses

C.

Trojan horses

D.

Logic bombs

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Question # 127

Which of the following virus types changes some of its characteristics as it spreads?

A.

Boot Sector

B.

Parasitic

C.

Stealth

D.

Polymorphic

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Question # 128

Which of the following best corresponds to the type of memory addressing where the address location that is specified in the program instruction contains the address of the final desired location?

A.

Direct addressing

B.

Indirect addressing

C.

Indexed addressing

D.

Program addressing

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Question # 129

In what way could Java applets pose a security threat?

A.

Their transport can interrupt the secure distribution of World Wide Web pages over the Internet by removing SSL and S-HTTP

B.

Java interpreters do not provide the ability to limit system access that an applet could have on a client system.

C.

Executables from the Internet may attempt an intentional attack when they are downloaded on a client system.

D.

Java does not check the bytecode at runtime or provide other safety mechanisms for program isolation from the client system.

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Question # 130

A trusted system does NOT involve which of the following?

A.

Enforcement of a security policy.

B.

Sufficiency and effectiveness of mechanisms to be able to enforce a security policy.

C.

Assurance that the security policy can be enforced in an efficient and reliable manner.

D.

Independently-verifiable evidence that the security policy-enforcing mechanisms are sufficient and effective.

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Question # 131

Which of the following is given the responsibility of the maintenance and protection of the data?

A.

Data owner

B.

Data custodian

C.

User

D.

Security administrator

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Question # 132

Which of the following is not a component of a Operations Security "triples"?

A.

Asset

B.

Threat

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Risk

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Question # 133

Which of the following security modes of operation involves the highest risk?

A.

Compartmented Security Mode

B.

Multilevel Security Mode

C.

System-High Security Mode

D.

Dedicated Security Mode

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Question # 134

Which of the following computer design approaches is based on the fact that in earlier technologies, the instruction fetch was the longest part of the cycle?

A.

Pipelining

B.

Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC)

C.

Complex Instruction Set Computers (CISC)

D.

Scalar processors

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Question # 135

Which of the following are the steps usually followed in the development of documents such as security policy, standards and procedures?

A.

design, development, publication, coding, and testing.

B.

design, evaluation, approval, publication, and implementation.

C.

initiation, evaluation, development, approval, publication, implementation, and maintenance.

D.

feasibility, development, approval, implementation, and integration.

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Question # 136

Which of the following phases of a software development life cycle normally addresses Due Care and Due Diligence?

A.

Implementation

B.

System feasibility

C.

Product design

D.

Software plans and requirements

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Question # 137

Which of the following is not a method to protect objects and the data within the objects?

A.

Layering

B.

Data mining

C.

Abstraction

D.

Data hiding

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Question # 138

Which of the following is considered the weakest link in a security system?

A.

People

B.

Software

C.

Communications

D.

Hardware

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