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Question # 4

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A.

Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.

B.

Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.

C.

Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.

D.

Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.

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Question # 5

Which of the following is included in a Procurement Strategy?

A.

Benefits

B.

Stakeholder list

C.

Contract pricing information

D.

Specification of works

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Question # 6

Which of the following is not a purpose of milestones?

A.

Adjusting resource requirements.

B.

Controlling project progress.

C.

Scheduling payments for deliverables.

D.

Setting major deadlines.

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Question # 7

Which statement regarding the purpose of the business case would be the most true?

A.

Once agreed the business case will become the baseline by which the project will be deployed,

B.

It will act as a reference for the project team regarding the specific. processes to be used forproject delivery.

C.

It will determine which stakeholders are most eligible to become members of the steering group,

D.

It will be referred to throughout the project in order to make decisions about the continuing viability of the project.

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Question # 8

What defining character from those listed below particularly typifies an issue?

A.

A major problem that was unexpected and now requires the attention Of the whole project team.

B.

A major problem that can only be addressed by the project sponsor.

C.

A major problem that may happen in the future.

D.

A major problem that requires A. formal process of escalation

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Question # 9

Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?

A.

A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.

B.

Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.

C.

It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.

D.

Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.

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Question # 10

One purpose of risk management is to:

A.

adapt the plan to resolve problems.

B.

minimise threats and maximise opportunities.

C.

continually improve the project teams' efficiency.

D.

manage variations in a controlled way

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Question # 11

Which of the following is true regarding differences between linear and iterative life cycles?

A.

A linear life cycle is best for evolving projects whereas an iterative life cycle is better for more structured projects.

B.

A linear life cycle is sequential whereas an iterative life cycle repeats one or more phases.

C.

A linear life cycle is always longer in duration whereas an iterative life cycle is always shorter in its duration.

D.

A linear life cycle is formally managed by A. dedicated project manager whereas management responsibility is shared in an iterative life cycle

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Question # 12

Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is considered to be the most important condition of compliance to ensure an effective plan is produced?

A.

The project team should not contribute to the writing of the PMP.

B.

The PMP should be agreed and signed off by both the sponsor and the project manager as a minimum.

C.

The sponsor should maintain ownership of the PM P.

D.

The PMP is necessary for effective stakeholder management.

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Question # 13

The value of a risk log lies in its ability to provide:

A.

A. record of all risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them.

B.

A. record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions.

C.

A. means of assessing the likelihood and impact of risks.

D.

A. structured process for risk management.

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Question # 14

What benefit justifies expending resources to achieve stakeholder

engagement?

A.

Optimised resource management opportunities.

B.

Reduced overall costs Of project delivery.

C.

Decreased duration of the project schedule.

D.

Increased likelihood Of the project being accepted.

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Question # 15

Which of the following is a project?

A.

Introducing a new information technology system.

B.

Operating a national rail network.

C.

Organising ongoing catering in the armed forces.

D.

Managing day-to-day security for senior politicians

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Question # 16

Which of the following is true of the project environment?

A.

Within the environment are the factors that influence and impact projects.

B.

Only certain types of projects are influenced by the environment.

C.

The project environment will only really impact the project at the start.

D There is no real way of determining the true project environment.

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Question # 17

Which of these is a key aspect of Programme Management?

A.

Business as usual reporting

B.

Strategic direction

C.

Benefits management

D.

Managing the project schedules

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Question # 18

When is it best to carry out a benefit review?

A.

At 6—12 months after handover.

B.

At various stages prior to handover.

C.

At the concept phase when developing the business case

D.

At various stages through deployment

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Question # 19

When managing risks, reducing the probability of a threat is considered to be am:

A.

proactive response.

B.

reactive response.

C.

proactive fallback.

D.

reactive fallback.

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Question # 20

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project team members?

A.

To establish formal reporting procedures for project progress.

B.

To assess the progress of their work against the strategic objectives.

C.

To ensure that work assigned to them by the Project Manager is performed.

D.

To identify and resolve project issues affecting the work delegated to them

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Question # 21

What is the most likely reason a stakeholder may object to the project?

A.

They have a lack of interest in what the project is they feel it doesn't really affect them.

B.

They haven't been involved in project manager from the candidates available

C.

They have misunderstood what the project is trying to achieve and have had very little communication from the project.

D.

They are a in another project and time to perform the stakeholder role

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Question # 22

Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)?

A.

To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.

B.

To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies.

C.

To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover.

D.

To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.

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Question # 23

Configuration management can be used to control documents, information and:

A.

users.

B.

audits.

C.

stakeholders.

D.

assets.

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Question # 24

"The degree of conformance of a process to requirements" is included in the definition of which term?

A.

Criteria

B.

Compliance

C.

Quality

D.

Benefits

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Question # 25

By carrying out a stakeholder analysis, project managers can assess whether or not stakeholders are:

A.

making unfair judgements.

B.

able to bring expertise to the project team.

C.

in a position to affect their careers.

D.

for or against the project outcomes.

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Question # 26

One of the main purposes of dividing a project into life cycle phases is to:

A.

break the work into controllable blocks in terms of effort and size.

B.

ensure the processes are properly maintained.

C.

ensure that the workforce is certain of their individual roles.

D.

provide a means Of producing overall project cost estimates.

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Question # 27

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the stages of a linear project life cycle?

A.

Deployment, Concept, Definition, Transition.

B.

Concept, Transition, Definition, Deployment.

C.

Concept, Definition, Deployment, Transition.

D.

Transition, Definition, Deployment, Concept

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Question # 28

What is the main reason for an initial high-level review of a change request?

A.

To consider if the change is feasible to evaluate at this stage.

B.

To establish who might be the best stakeholders to be involved in the change.

C.

To ensure that the change request is considered as soon as possible.

D.

To implement the necessary actions to ensure the change has a smooth implementation.

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Question # 29

When using a PESTLE analysis, a potential change in national government would be an example of a:

A.

political factor.

B.

economic factor.

C.

sociological factor.

D A. potential change of government would not be considered in such an analysis.

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Question # 30

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

A.

Steering group.

B.

Risk owner.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Project manager

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Question # 31

What is a factor that is important when communicating as part of stakeholder engagement?

A.

Planned communication will help to establish the level of interest and power a stakeholder is likely to possess.

B.

Planned communication will increase the number of stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the project.

C.

Planned communication will reduce the power of stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the project.

D.

Planned communication is likely to reduce the number Of valid stakeholders who have an interest in the project.

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Question # 32

Which one of the following statements is true?

A.

Risk events always have beneficial effects on the project.

B.

Risk events can have either beneficial or detrimental effects on the project.

C.

Risk events always have detrimental effects on the project.

D.

Risk events have neither beneficial nor detrimental effects on the project.

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Question # 33

In project management, the term quality is best defined as:

A.

inspection, testing and measurement.

B.

reviews and audits.

C.

fitness for purpose of deliverables.

D.

professionally-bound project reports.

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Question # 34

Which of the following phases precedes feasibility in an iterative project life cycle?

A.

Foundations.

B.

Pre-project.

C.

Concept.

D.

Initiation.

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Question # 35

How does having a business case help an organisation?

A.

It provides a documented account of the decisions that have been made and by whom in the planning of the project's finances, ensuring the project's compliance with recognized governance standards

B.

It provides an overview of how the project will deliver the scheduled progress over the period agreed between the project manager, sponsor and other key stakeholders associated with the project.

C.

It provides a means by which the sponsor can monitor the project manager's performance in relation to the plans documented in the business case and highlight points at which a change of project manager may be necessary.

D.

It provides a recognized framework by which project spending proposals can be recorded, reviewed and audited to learn lessons about how efficiently the organisation is deploying funds to achieve its targeted returns.

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Question # 36

A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines, is referred to as the:

A.

change management committee,

B.

change authority,

C.

change control board.

D.

change implementation group.

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Question # 37

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

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Question # 38

What is the term given to the senior management team that set the strategic. direction for a project?

A.

Project management office.

B.

Change control board.

C.

Project steering group.

D.

Programme director.

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Question # 39

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the post project review?

A.

Evaluation of the benefits of the project.

B.

Identification of the problems that arose and their likely causes.

C.

Review of the project's performance against the success criteria.

D.

Review of how the team worked together to solve problems and issues.

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Question # 40

Which of the following can be adjusted during a time box? 1) Scope 2) Resource 3) Time 4) Quality

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

3 and 4 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Question # 41

The project management plan is best described as a reference document that confirms:

A.

the project completion date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

B.

the agreement between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

C.

the key project milestones as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

D.

the project start date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager

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Question # 42

Configuration management is defined as a process which enables:

A.

the creation, maintenance, controlled change and the quality control of a scope of work.

B.

a structured approach to move an organisation from a current state to a future desired state.

C.

the safeguarding of stakeholder benefits, outputs and outcomes to requirements.

D.

the identification of differences would affect successful completion of objectives.

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Question # 43

Who would be typically described as the person or organisation best placed to deal with a risk?

A.

Risk manager.

B.

Sponsor.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Risk owner.

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Question # 44

Which one of the following statements is true?

A.

The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.

B.

The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.

C.

The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the project life cycle.

D.

The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase of the project life cycle.

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Question # 45

On examining a particular risk in the project there is some uncertainty among the project team of how important this risk is to the project. How would you advise the team on how the significance of the risk is to be determined?

A.

By assessing its probability of occurrence.

B.

By assessing its impact on project objectives,

C.

By assessing both its probability of occurrence and its impact on project objectives.

D.

By assessing its effect on the business case.

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Question # 46

Which of these statements is FALSE?

A.

Stakeholders may be for the change or against

B.

Stakeholders may have little influence or lots

C.

Stakeholders may be internal or external to your organisation

D.

Stakeholders with high influence always have high interest in the project

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Question # 47

Throughout the life of the project. issues that are raised are in the:

A.

quality register.

B.

issue register.

C.

change register.

D.

risk register.

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Question # 48

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the business case?

A.

Safety plan for the project.

B.

Implementation options.

C.

Stakeholder identification.

D.

Business benefits.

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Question # 49

How would a project manager use an estimating funnel?

A.

Describe the improvement in accuracy in estimations over time.

B.

Narrow down budgetary options.

C.

Eliminate unnecessary costs.

D.

Improve understanding of estimation methods over time.

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Question # 50

What aspect of the project will have greatest influence on the estimating method being used?

A.

The point in the life cycle where the estimate is being carried out.

B.

The overall budgeted value of the project being estimated.

C.

Whether the project is likely to proceed or not.

D.

The amount of acceptable estimating tolerance that exists.

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Question # 51

When in the project life cycle might analogous estimating be most commonly used?

A.

Transition.

B.

Concept

C.

Deployment.

D.

Definition.

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Question # 52

Which one of the following takes place during closeout?

A.

Benefits realisation review.

B.

Final project review.

C.

Deliverables accepted by sponsor.

D.

Handover of relevant documentation

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Question # 53

Which project management process is NOT likely to be used when resolving an issue?

A.

Risk management

B.

Change control

C.

Scope management

D.

Team building

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Question # 54

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

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Question # 55

Three general categories for interpretation of communication could be described as:

A.

email, paper, Voice.

B.

tactile/visual, auditory, written.

C.

telephone, computer. microphone.

D.

reception, transmission, interruption.

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Question # 56

Which of the following would be considered part of a configuration management process?

A.

Initiating, identifying, assessing, planning, responding.

B.

Planning, identification, controlling, status accounting, auditing.

C.

Scheduling, baselining, controlling, responding, closing.

D.

Planning. auditing. monitoring, controlling, closing.

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Question # 57

Which of the following are typical estimating methods? 1) Analytical 2) Budgeting 3) Analogous 4) Parametric

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Question # 58

What information would be expected as content for a business case?

A.

A. detailed schedule of the project.

B.

An outline of the project management team.

C.

An outline of the estimated costs of implementing the project.

D.

detailed breakdown of the scope of the project.

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Question # 59

Which of the following disadvantages applies to video conferencing?

A.

A level of technological expertise is required.

B.

Body language can reinforce the message.

C.

It is harder to maintain concentration.

D.

There are increased costs of getting to the meeting.

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Question # 60

Which one of the following is a valid description of the phases of a complete project lifecycle?

A.

Start-up, feasibility, planning, execution and roll-out.

B.

Concept, screening, implementation, handover and closeout.

C.

Concept, definition, implementation, handover and closeout.

D.

Start-up, definition, development and production closedown.

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Question # 61

Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?

1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members

2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members

3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area

4) Lack of accountability of team members

A.

1, 2 & 3

B.

1, 2 & 4

C.

1, 3 & 4

D.

2, 3 & 4

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Question # 62

Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development

A.

3 and 4 only

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Question # 63

Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

A.

An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.

B.

A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.

C.

The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.

D.

A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost term

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Question # 64

To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needsto consider which type of analysis?

A.

Budget.

B.

Stakeholder.

C.

Resource.

D.

Schedule

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Question # 65

What is the main objective of A. RAM?

A.

To provide a clear and concise summary of tasks or deliverables and the specific. responsibilities defined.

B.

To provide an outline of the reporting structure to assist in day-to-day management of the project.

C.

To provide an outline of the scope of the project and the specific deliverables that have been agreed for the project.

D.

To provide an outline of the specific costs of the project and which key deliverables they are allocated to.

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Question # 66

In A. RACI coding format, what does 'A' stand for?

A.

Available.

B.

Authorised.

C.

Accountable.

D.

Acceptable.

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Question # 67

One aspect of quality planning is to:

A.

plan the audit of a project to provide assurance to the project board.

B.

provide confidence that a project will achieve its objectives in the required time frame.

C.

specify the acceptance criteria used to validate the outputs are fit for purpose.

D.

confirm routes for reporting to ensure effective communication

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Question # 68

At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?

A.

Storming.

B.

Forming.

C.

Norming.

D.

Performing

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Question # 69

The post project review report should be:

A.

included in the project plan for the next similar project.

B.

restricted in circulation in case it contains critical information.

C.

archived for use in a future audit of project management processes.

D.

available to all project managers within the organisation

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Question # 70

Implementation of plans and verification of performance is most likely to occur in:

A.

the deployment phase.

B.

the definition phase

C.

the concept phase.

D.

the adoption phase

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Question # 71

To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in the project, the project manager should:

A.

ensure that everyone is copied On all emails.

B.

insist on a lower level of paper documents.

C.

train project staff in the most up-to-date communication techniques

D.

develop a communication plan.

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Question # 72

What is the likely decision to arise from the response stage of the risk management process?

A.

Whether to proceed with the project or recommend termination.

B.

Whether the process being used is robust enough for the project being undertaken.

C.

Whether to proactively invest to bring the exposure to risk within tolerable levels.

D.

Whether to use brainstorming or a workshop to decide on the best response.

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Question # 73

Which of the following would be considered as the main purpose of a project management plan?

A.

To provide a documented account of the outcomes of the planning process.

B.

To enable agreement between the project sponsor and project manager with regard to project budget, resource requirements and timescale.

C.

To provide A. record of how the project was planned, for archiving in the organisation's lessons learned.

D.

To identify and record the projects intended financial spend over the period of project delivery.

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Question # 74

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are used for measuring how a project is progressing towards success and are monitored by project managers:

A.

at the post-project review.

B.

not more frequently than monthly.

C.

throughout the project.

D.

only when assessing project risk.

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Question # 75

The project you are working on has chosen to produce an estimate using a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS). What estimating method is this approach commonly known as?

A.

Comparative estimating.

B.

Bottom-up/analytical estimating.

C.

Strategic estimating.

D.

Parametric estimating.

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Question # 76

A work breakdown structure shows the levels of work required to produce the deliverables for the project in what type of diagram?

A.

Histogram.

B.

Hierarchical.

C.

Handover.

D.

Historical.

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Question # 77

In order to be defined as an issue, which of the following conditions must be satisfied?

A.

It must result in a set tolerance being exceeded.

B.

The project manager must be able to resolve it.

C.

It must have happened because of an identified risk.

D.

The project team must be able to deal with it internally.

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Question # 78

Which of the following role is primarily responsible for defining goals and creating vision for the operability of the project's outputs?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Product owner.

C.

User.

D Business case owner.

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Question # 79

What is the importance of having a business case?

A.

It allows the sponsor to use the document as a baseline to calculate project slippage.

B.

It provides an overview of the project team performance at each stage of delivery.

C.

It shows how the project manager is performing in delivering the project

D.

It allows the sponsor to decide on project continuously when used at gate review

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Question # 80

What role does the project manager have in the writing of the business case? The project manager:

A.

works with the project sponsor.

B.

has no involvement.

C.

must develop it themself.

D.

works with the end user.

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Question # 81

Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process?

A.

Verification.

B.

Request.

C.

Closure.

D.

Justification

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Question # 82

What is one of the most important aspects to establish about a stakeholder's interest in the project?

A.

If it is positive or negative.

B.

If it is regular or intermittent.

C.

If it is influenced by the project.

D.

If it is influenced by other stakeholders.

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Question # 83

Which of the following is a responsibility of the project sponsor?

A.

Creating a project cost breakdown structure.

B.

Authoring the project management plan.

C.

Creating a project work breakdown structure.

D.

Owning the project business case.

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Question # 84

The project management plan:

A.

justifies undertaking the project.

B.

describes the success criteria for the project.

C.

focuses primarily on time related issues.

D.

describes the success factor for the project.

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Question # 85

Understanding who stakeholders are and their needs is a key duty of

A.

the quality manager.

B.

the key users,

C.

the project manager.

D.

the business sponsor.

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Question # 86

When in the project life cycle should the deployment baseline be formed?

A.

Deployment phase.

B.

Concept phase.

C.

Definition phase.

D.

Transition phase.

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Question # 87

The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:

A.

quality assurance.

B.

quality planning.

C.

quality control.

D.

quality audit.

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Question # 88

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project sponsor?

A.

Monitoring progress and use of the project resources.

B.

Analysing the project team's productivity

C.

Ensuring the benefits of the project are realised.

D Planning project evaluation reviews for lessons learned.

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Question # 89

What might be considered a disadvantage of virtual communication?

A.

Digital communication links never seem to work as required.

B.

Communication being misunderstood.

C.

There is no method for providing feedback.

D.

This method of communication tends to be time consuming.

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Question # 90

Which of the following statements describes a key difference between quality assurance and quality control?

A.

Quality control is about fitness for purpose whilst quality assurance is about management confidence.

B.

Quality control is about testing whilst quality assurance is about planning.

C.

Quality control is about fitness for purpose whilst quality assurance is about testing.

D.

Quality control is about management whilst quality assurance is about controlling change.

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Question # 91

Which of the following estimating techniques utilizes work packages, assigning costs and consolidating to provide a project estimate?

A.

Analytical.

B.

Comparative.

C.

Parametric.

D.

Strategic.

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Question # 92

Why is it important to produce a project management plan?

A.

It shows the benefits expected at the close of the project and the specific stakeholders who are involved.

B.

It provides justification for undertaking the project and provides a rationale for the preferred solution.

C.

It sets and clarifies the expectations of all stakeholders who are involved in the project delivery.

D.

It identifies and establishes the most appropriate means of procuring the component parts or services for the project being delivered.

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Question # 93

The phases of a project life cycle are:

A.

starting, planning, control and closing.

B.

concept, definition, development, handover and closure.

C.

initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.

D.

concept, definition, implementation and operations.

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Question # 94

In project management quality is best defined as:

A.

inspection, testing and measurement.

B.

reviews and audits.

C.

fitness for purpose of deliverables.

D.

professionally-bound project reports.

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Question # 95

Which of the following statements refers to how scope is managed in a linear project but not an iterative project?

A.

Teams can act on new knowledge to change the scope.

B.

Teams can re-prioritise requirements within the scope.

C.

The scope of work is the starting point for the implementation of change control.

D.

Scope definition is assumed to be fixed for the whole project

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Question # 96

What is an example of a project management office activity that would be most likely undertaken to support a project?

A.

Developing the project management plan.

B.

Developing the business case.

C.

Carrying out A. health check.

D Carrying out day-to-day resource management.

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Question # 97

Which of the following defines quality?

A.

The fitness for purpose of outputs and processes.

B.

The value for money of a product.

C.

The satisfaction of the stakeholders.

D.

The thoroughness of the management plan.

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Question # 98

The implementation of risk management on A. project requires a cost allocation from the project budget. Which statement describes the most representative return from such an investment?

A.

A benefit to the project if potential opportunities are realised

B.

The cost of dealing with a risk should it occur is usually greater than the cost of managing that risk.

C.

Risk management in the project facilitates team building.

D.

It allows the organisation to assure stakeholders of project compliance with regard to risk management.

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Question # 99

The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

A.

identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.

B.

identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.

C.

identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.

D.

satisfy the organisation's project management process.

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Question # 100

When delivering a project the Project Manager has to balance which one of the following constraints:

A.

definition and delivery.

B.

time, cost and quality.

C.

cost and scope.

D.

budget, spend and contingency

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Question # 101

Which of the following is not a benefit to using a hybrid project life cycle?

A.

Provides a framework that is universally applicable.

B.

Speeds up deployment and benefits realization.

C.

Focuses on the most useful interim deliverables.

D.

Augments and strengthens predictive deployment.

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Question # 102

When the project progresses through the life cycle. which one of the following aspects would be expected to occur?

A.

The accuracy of the estimate reduces and the level of contingency requirement increases.

B.

The accuracy of the estimate increases and the level of contingency requirement reduces.

C.

The accuracy and level Of contingency requirement both increase.

D.

The accuracy and level of contingency requirement both reduce.

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Question # 103

Which type of projects needs to consider environmental constraints?

A.

Construction projects only.

B.

Construction and petrochemical projects only.

C.

All but IT projects.

D.

All projects.

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Question # 104

Which of the following is the responsibility of a project manager?

A.

Ensuring a project is aligned to the organisation's strategy.

B.

Focusing on project benefits and aligning priorities.

C.

Achieving the project's success criteria.

D.

Improving process, tools and techniques used in a project

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Question # 105

How is the deployment baseline used throughout the project?

A.

Progress monitoring and implementation of change control.

B.

Benefits realisation.

C.

Identify options for deployment.

D.

Prepare users for delivery of the output into operation.

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Question # 106

A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:

A.

define the terms of reference of the project manager.

B.

define the limits of the project sponsor's responsibilities.

C.

allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.

D.

allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.

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Question # 107

Which one of the following is the best reason for splitting a project into phases?

A.

For team members to reflect on their performance during a phase.

B.

For the project manager to take a break between phases.

C.

It creates a decision point for continuing the project.

D.

In order for the plan to be updated regularly.

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Question # 108

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

A.

Work Breakdown Structure.

B.

Organisational Breakdown Structure.

C.

Product Breakdown Structure.

D.

Responsibility assignment structure.

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Question # 109

Which one of the following is the best description of project scope?

A.

Scope is detailed in the business case.

B.

Scope is the total work content of a project.

C.

Scope is an outcome of the scheduling and estimating processes.

D.

Scope defines what is NOT delivered by the project.

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Question # 110

Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?

A.

A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.

B.

A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.

C.

A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.

D.

A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.

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Question # 111

Benefits management ends once the benefits have been:

A.

defined.

B.

quantified.

C.

realised.

D.

conceived.

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Question # 112

When managing the internal context, the project manager should especially be aware of:

A.

organisational strategy, policies and frameworks.

B.

competitive positioning.

C.

new legislation.

D business continuity.

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Question # 113

Quality control consists of:

1) improvement

2) inspection

3) measurement

4) testing

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

2, 3 and 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

1, 2 and 3

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Question # 114

Which key questions should be asked before a decision gate occurs?

1) Is the business case viable?

2) What has been achieved?

3) What is required for the next stage?

4) Are stakeholders properly engaged?

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 3 and 4

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Question # 115

Which one of the following would be expected to form the main part of a risk analysis?

A.

Deciding on the approach to project risk management.

B.

Evaluating the risk in terms of severity and relative importance.

C.

Deciding on how to respond to the risk and who should implement the response.

D.

Deciding if the risk is a threat or opportunity.

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Question # 116

One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:

A.

facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.

B.

balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.

C.

mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.

D.

chunk work into time periods of similar durations.

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Question # 117

Which one of the following would NOT typically be part of procurement?

A.

Estimating.

B.

Engagement of external suppliers.

C.

Definition of items to be acquired.

D.

Bidding.

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Question # 118

The main objective of stakeholder management is to establish stakeholder:

A.

interests.

B.

expectations.

C.

influence.

D.

engagement.

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Question # 119

The purpose of a decision gate is to decide whether:

A.

the response to a risk is valid.

B.

a project is viable in line with the business case.

C.

the project delivered against the success criteria.

D.

lessons were effectively learned during the project.

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Question # 120

Which of the following statements about estimating is true?

A.

Post project reviews are a prime source of estimating data.

B.

An estimated cost for a project must be 10 per cent to be any use

C.

If you cannot estimate task durations to within 20 per cent there is no point in developing a schedule.

D.

The project manager should always add 10 cent to peoples duration estimates to allow for natural optimism

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Question # 121

Which of the following is a purpose of issue management?

A.

To stop issues occurring within the project.

B.

To address and resolve the issues that occur.

C.

To address and resolve uncertainty.

D.

To reschedule activities to reduce costs

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Question # 122

What aspects of benefits realisation would be considered as most important to note in the business case?

A.

Who is going to be responsible for carrying out each of the projects activities.

B.

How the benefits will be realised, measured and the stakeholders involved

C.

What type of contract is going to be used to procure delivery of the project.

D.

Which benefits should be realised first and then the subsequent order

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