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Question # 4

Which of the following drugs cannot be taken orally?

A.

INH

B.

PASA

C.

ASA

D.

Streptomycin

E.

Oxacillin

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Question # 5

Class of urokinase is:

A.

Sedatives

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Antimycobacterial

D.

Antidepressants

E.

Thrombolytics

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Question # 6

Examples of antibiotic that is an acid stable penicillinase resistant include:

A.

Amoxicillin

B.

Oxacillin

C.

Ampicillin

D.

Carbenicillin

E.

Penicillin V

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Question # 7

Mechanism of action of doxorubicin is:

A.

Inhibits topoisomerase II

B.

alpha antagonist

C.

Inhibits peptidyl transferase

D.

beta antagonist

E.

Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition

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Question # 8

Mechanism of action of zalcitabine is:

A.

Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

B.

Inhibits reverse transcriptase

C.

Inhibits DNA gyrase

D.

Inhibits viral protease

E.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

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Question # 9

Indication of clindamycin is:

A.

Benzodiazepine intoxication

B.

Hypercalcemia

C.

Kaposi's sarcoma

D.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

E.

Angina

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Question # 10

Resistance is the major problem with penicillins due to ability of bacteria to breakdown the lactam ring of penicillin and inactivates the drug. To overcome these problem penicillins can be administrated together with β-lactamase inhibitors.

Examples of β-lactamase inhibitors is/are:

I- Clavulanic acid

II- Sulbactam

III- Tazobactam

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 11

Subclass of tolbutamide is:

A.

Sulfonylureas

B.

Organic nitrates

C.

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

D.

Potassium channel agonists

E.

Biguanides

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Question # 12

Mechanism of action of enalapril is:

A.

serotonin reuptake inhibitor

B.

Inhibits bone resorption

C.

beta-2 agonist

D.

Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme

E.

Induces "freezing" of initiation complex

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Question # 13

Cigarette smoke causes an increase in levels of CYP1A isozymes. Theophylline is primarily metabolized by the CYP1A system. What would happen to theophylline clearance for an asthmatic patient in hospital who could not smoke?

A.

No change

B.

Increase

C.

Decrease

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Question # 14

Class of famciclovir is:

A.

NSAID

B.

Antidepressants

C.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

D.

Antivirals

E.

Oral hypoglycemics

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Question # 15

Mechanism of action of neomycin is:

A.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

B.

Blocks K channels

C.

Blocks Na channels

D.

Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome

E.

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

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Question # 16

Mechanism of action of ampicillin is:

A.

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

B.

Inhibits transpeptidase

C.

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

D.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

E.

Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

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Question # 17

Given F = .24, what is the overall hepatic clearance of morphine if the above patient has portal hypertension such that their hepatic blood flow is reduced by ½? Assume the clearance value given in the previous question is entirely hepatic clearance.

A.

30 L/hr/70 Kg

B.

60 L/hr/70 Kg

C.

120 L/hr/70 Kg

D.

250 L/hr/70 Kg

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Question # 18

Indication of PTU is:

A.

Glaucoma

B.

Migraine prophylaxis

C.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy

D.

Severe recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias

E.

Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

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Question # 19

Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?

A.

Kidney

B.

Liver

C.

Blood

D.

Heart

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Question # 20

Which of the following enzymes could metabolize ethanol?

A.

Cytochrome P450

B.

Alcohol Dehydrogenase

C.

Glucuronyl Transferase

D.

Sulfotransferase

E.

All of the above

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Question # 21

Effect of bisacodyl is:

A.

Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%

B.

Decreases water absorption

C.

Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50%

D.

Enhances mucociliary clearance

E.

Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

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Question # 22

Which of the following statements refers to HPMPC?

A.

Tricyclic.

B.

Cytosine monophosphate analog

C.

Works by accumulating in and changing pH of lysosomes.

D.

Mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - does not decrease heart rate and contractility as much during exercise.

E.

Metabolized in liver by P450.

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Question # 23

Indication of phenoxybenzamine is:

A.

Pain

B.

Movement disorders

C.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy

D.

Anaphylactic shock

E.

Acute hypertension

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Question # 24

Class of demeclocycline is:

A.

Analgesics

B.

Inotropic agents

C.

Penicillins

D.

Antithyroid agents

E.

Aquaretics

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Question # 25

Vitamin that requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the small intestine:

A.

Cyanocobalamin

B.

Folic acid

C.

Pantothenic acid

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Niacin

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Question # 26

Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include:

I Escherichia coli

II Haemophilus influenzae

III Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Question # 27

What is correct regarding the formation of proteins?

A.

Formed by condensation of peptic bond

B.

Geometric sequence of amino acids

C.

The formation occurs by complexation of amino acids

D.

Proteins are formed from carbohydrates

E.

None of the above is right

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Question # 28

Correct statements concerning vitamin E include:

I- It is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues

II- It is absorbed from the small intestine

III- Widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 29

Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain:

A.

aniline and piperidine rings.

B.

aniline and piperazine rings.

C.

aniline and pyrrolidine rings.

D.

pyrrolidine and piperazine rings.

E.

pyrrolidine and piperidine rings.

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Question # 30

Carotene is the precursor of:

A.

retinol

B.

thiamine

C.

calciferol

D.

riboflavin

E.

retinoic acid

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Question # 31

Which of the following reactions is controlled by the pancreatic hormone INSULIN?

A.

Glycogenolysis

B.

Glycolysis

C.

Glycogenesis

D.

Gluconeogenesis

E.

Anaerobic glycolysis

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Question # 32

Protein disnaturation may happen due to:

A.

Exposure to air

B.

Shaking

C.

Increase in temperature

D.

Chemical reagents

E.

All are correct

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Question # 33

The blood volume of the average adult is approximately:

A.

5 L

B.

10 L

C.

15 L

D.

20 L

E.

25 L

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Question # 34

Abundant element in the interstitial fluid may include:

A.

Potassium

B.

Sodium

C.

Magnesium

D.

Calcium

E.

Chloro

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Question # 35

Which of the following is the end product of ANAEROBIC reactions?

A.

Pyruvic acid

B.

CO2

C.

CO2 + H2O

D.

Lactic acid

E.

Proteins

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Question # 36

The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in:

A.

RBCs

B.

Reticulum Endothelial

C.

Liver

D.

Kidney

E.

Pancreas

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Question # 37

Shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall:

A.

Ribossomes

B.

Endoplasmic reticulum

C.

Mitocondria

D.

Cell membrane

E.

Nucleotide

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Question # 38

The most abundant metal ion in human body

A.

Iron

B.

Magnesium

C.

Aluminum

D.

Phosphorous

E.

Potassium

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Question # 39

Non-protein portion of hemoglobin consist of:

A.

Ferrous complex of protophorphirin IX

B.

3 Heme unit surrounding an iron atom

C.

4 Heme unit surrounding a ferric ion

D.

4 Pyrrole rings linked through a Fe³+ mol.

E.

All are correct

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Question # 40

The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order:

A.

when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km.

B.

when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration.

C.

when Vmax is much smaller than Km.

D.

when Vmax is much larger than Km.

E.

when Km approaches Vmax.

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Question # 41

The skeletal structure of the hipbone includes the:

I ilium

II ischium

III pubis

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Question # 42

All are examples of drugs used in the treatment of bronchoconstriction, EXCEPT:

A.

β2-agonists

B.

Anticholinergic

C.

Methyl xanthenes

D.

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors

E.

Leukotriene modifiers

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Question # 43

Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it:

I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds.

II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction.

III decreases the force of myocardial contraction.

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Question # 44

All are examples of corticosteroids inhalers used in asthma, EXCEPT:

A.

Beclometasone

B.

Sodium cromoglycate

C.

Flunisolide

D.

Fluticasone

E.

Budesonide

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Question # 45

Which of the following agents or combinations may be appropriated to treat severe intermittent asthma?

A.

High doses of inhaled corticosteroid

B.

Long acting β2-agonists

C.

Short acting β2-agonists

D.

Oral corticosteroids

E.

Combination of all the above medication

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Question # 46

Uricosuric agents are used in gout treatment by inhibiting the uric acid re-absorption in the proximal tubules, the best example of

a uricosuric agent is:

A.

Allopurinol

B.

sulphinpyrazone

C.

Indomethacin

D.

Penicillamine

E.

Methotrexate

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Question # 47

Characteristics of GOUT, a group of disorders of purine and pyrimidine metabolism may include:

I- Hereditary metabolite disease marked by inflammation of the joints

II- The joint inflammation is caused by precipitation of uric acid crystals

III- It is a type osteoporosis

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 48

The mechanism of antipsychotic effect of phenothiazines is thought to be due to:

A.

improvement of cholinergic transmission

B.

blockade of catecholamine re-uptake

C.

blockade of dopamine receptors

D.

blockade of enkephalinergic neurons

E.

prolactin release

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Question # 49

Pannus is an inflammatory exudates characterized by:

I- Synovial cell proliferation inside of a joint

II- Normally occurs in patients with rheumatoid arthritis

III- An immunologic complication

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 50

Advantages of nasal route over oral route absorption of drugs may include:

I- Nasal route has a higher surface area

II- Nasal route has more blood vessels

III- Nasal route has a higher onset of absorption

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 51

Goals of gout treatment may include:

I- Reduce inflammation during acute attacks

II- Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid

III- Reduce the conversion of purine to uric acid

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 52

The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes the development of detailed policies and written procedures for employees to observe at all times is referred to as:

A.

autocratic

B.

bureaucratic

C.

participative

D.

benevolent

E.

consultative

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Question # 53

Agents considered as precursor of leukotriene include:

A.

Tyrosine

B.

Cyanide

C.

Arachidonic acid

D.

Prostaglandins

E.

Histamine

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Question # 54

Indication of leukotrienes modifiers in the treatment of asthma includes which of the following?

I- Acute treatment

II- Prophylaxis

III- Chronic treatment

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 55

The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with:

A.

salbutamol

B.

diphenhydramine

C.

adrenaline

D.

acetazolamide

E.

aminophylline

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Question # 56

The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. Identify the site which would be most susceptible to hydrolysis.

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

E.

E

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Question # 57

Mechanism of inhibit protein synthesis is characteristic of all the following antibiotics, EXCEPT:

A.

Aminoglycosides

B.

Tetracycline

C.

Cephalexin

D.

Chloramphenicol

E.

Clindamycin

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Question # 58

Which of the following statements best describes the action of the antitubercular agent ISONIAZID?

A.

Inhibit cell wall synthesis of mycobacterium

B.

Inhibit the DNA duplication of mycobacterium

C.

Inhibit arachydonic acids that feed mycobacterium

D.

Inhibit mycolic acids that are unique for mycobacterium

E.

Inhibit protein synthesis of mycobacterium

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Question # 59

Antibiotics that often cause colitis-acute inflammation of colon as side effect include:

I- Broad-spectrum penicillins

II- Cephalosporins

III- Clindamycin

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 60

Which of the following agents can be classified as macrolide antibiotics?

I- Azithromycin

II- Clarithromycin

III- Erythromycin

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 61

Class of pectin is:

A.

Analgesics

B.

Glucocorticosteroids

C.

Methylxanthines

D.

Antidiarrheal agents

E.

Antiarrhythmic agents

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Question # 62

Which of the following is considered a polyene antifungal agent?

A.

Miconazole

B.

Clotrimazole

C.

Amphotericin

D.

Itraconazole

E.

Ketoconazole

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Question # 63

Drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood infection-schistosomyasis may include:

A.

Niclosamide

B.

Prazinquatel

C.

Mebendazole

D.

Dapsone

E.

Thiabendazole

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