Labour Day Sale Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: buysanta

Exact2Pass Menu

Question # 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?

A.

GigabitEthernet0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

Null0

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

Full Access
Question # 5

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Full Access
Question # 6

Refer to the exhibit.

The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?

A.

192.168.1.226

B.

192.168.1.100

C.

192.168.1.254

D.

192.168.1.253

Full Access
Question # 7

What is a feature of WPA?

A.

802.1x authentication

B.

preshared key

C.

TKIP/MIC encryption

D.

small Wi-Fi application

Full Access
Question # 8

Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)

A.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively

B.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

C.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

D.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

Full Access
Question # 9

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 10

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

A.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

B.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

C.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

D.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

Full Access
Question # 11

In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity?

A.

control and monitoring of resource consumption by the tenant

B.

automatic adjustment of capacity based on need

C.

pooling resources in a multitenant model based on need

D.

self-service of computing resources by the tenant

Full Access
Question # 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.

Full Access
Question # 13

Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.

Full Access
Question # 14

Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?

A.

Local

B.

Client

C.

Enterprise

D.

Personal

Full Access
Question # 15

What does traffic shaping do?

A.

It modifies the QoS attributes of a packet

B.

It queues excess traffic

C.

It organizes traffic into classes.

D.

It sets QoS attributes within a packet.

Full Access
Question # 16

Which two protocols are used by an administrator for authentication and configuration on access points?

A.

Kerberos

B.

802.1Q

C.

802.1x

D.

TACACS+

E.

RADIUS

Full Access
Question # 17

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configured on the right. Not all commands are used.

Full Access
Question # 18

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3

B.

ipv6 route ::/128 2001 :db8:1234:2::1 3

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 1

D.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 2

Full Access
Question # 19

What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?

A.

VLAN trunking

B.

tunneling

C.

first hop redundancy

D.

link aggregation

Full Access
Question # 20

What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.)

A.

It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks.

B.

It supports between 50 and 100 users.

C.

It supports between 1 and 50 users.

D.

It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture.

E.

A router port connects to a broadband connection.

Full Access
Question # 21

Refer lo the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?

A.

192.168.30.1

B.

10.10 105

C.

10.10.10.6

D.

192.168.201

Full Access
Question # 22

Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 23

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

Full Access
Question # 24

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the internet.

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

32

Full Access
Question # 25

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

A.

255.255.255.240

B.

255.255.255.128

C.

255.255.248.

D.

255.255.255.248

Full Access
Question # 26

Refer to the exhibit.

A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?

A.

Subnet Mask

B.

DNS Servers

C.

Default Gateway

D.

DHCP Server

Full Access
Question # 27

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

A.

FF00:1/12

B.

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

C.

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

D.

FE80::1/10

Full Access
Question # 28

Which is a fact related to FTP?

A.

It uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors

B.

It always operates without user authentication

C.

It relies on the well-known UDP port 69.

D.

It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic

Full Access
Question # 29

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the prefix length for the route that router1 will use to reach host A?

A.

/25

B.

/27

C.

/28

D.

/29

Full Access
Question # 30

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Full Access
Question # 31

Refer to the exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the lookback3 interface of the Washington router.

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

B.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

C.

ipv6 route 2000:3 123 s0/0/0

D.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

Full Access
Question # 32

SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)

A.

Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic.

B.

Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.

C.

Enable Media Session Snooping on re WLAN.

D.

Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interlace of the WLC.

E.

Configure two different QoS rotes tor data and voice traffic.

Full Access
Question # 33

How does encryption project the wireless network?

A.

via integrity checks to identify wireless forgery attacks in the frame

B.

via specific ciphers to detect and prevent zero-day network attacks

C.

via an algorithm to change wireless data so that only the access point and client understand it

D.

via a policy to prevent unauthorized users from communicating on the wireless network

Full Access
Question # 34

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

A.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C801:BEFF:FE4A:1

B.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C081:BFFF:FE4A:1

C.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:4562:098F:FE36:1

D.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C800:BAFE:FF00:1

Full Access
Question # 35

How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?

A.

ratio of signal-to-noise rating supplied by the wireless device

B.

signals from other Wi-Fi networks that interfere with the local signal

C.

measured difference between the desired Wi-Fi signal and an interfering Wi-Fi signal

D.

any interference that is not Wi-Fi traffic that degrades the desired signal

Full Access
Question # 36

What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?

A.

ff02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

B.

2004:31c:73d9:683e:255::

C.

fffe:034:0dd:45d6:789e::

D.

fe80:4433:034:0dd::2

Full Access
Question # 37

Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?

A.

netstat-n

B.

ipconfig

C.

ifconfig

D.

netstat-r

Full Access
Question # 38

Which channel-group mode must be configured when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?

A.

Channel-group mode passive.

B.

Channel-group mode on.

C.

Channel-group mode desirable.

D.

Channel-group mode active.

Full Access
Question # 39

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

A.

root-bridge loss

B.

spanning-tree loops

C.

default gateway failure

D.

BGP neighbor flapping

Full Access
Question # 40

A wireless access point is needed and must meet these requirements:

• "zero-touch" deployed and managed by a WLC

• process only real-time MAC functionality

• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

mesh

D.

cloud-based

Full Access
Question # 41

When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?

A.

Flush all MAC addresses from the WLC

B.

Re-associate the WLC with the access point.

C.

Re-enable the WLC interfaces

D.

Reboot the WLC

Full Access
Question # 42

Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?

A.

UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable.

B.

TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out- of-order.

C.

TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.

D.

UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.

Full Access
Question # 43

A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?

A.

The router chooses the route with the oldest age.

B.

The router load-balances traffic over all routes to the destination.

C.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest MAC address.

D.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest IP address.

Full Access
Question # 44

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuring on switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets.

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 45

What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?

A.

Reduce inconsistencies in the network configuration.

B.

Enable "box by box" configuration and deployment.

C.

Decipher simple password policies.

D.

Increase recurrent management costs.

Full Access
Question # 46

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?

A.

It continues to use a statically assigned IPv4 address

B.

It forces the DNS server to provide the same IPv4 address at each renewal.

C.

It requests the same IPv4 address when it renews its lease with the DHCP server.

D.

It prefers a pool of addresses when renewing the IPv4 host IP address

Full Access
Question # 47

Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?

A.

virtual interface

B.

management interface

C.

console port

D.

service port

Full Access
Question # 48

What is the advantage of separating the control plane from the data plane within an SDN network?

A.

decreases overall network complexity

B.

limits data queries to the control plane

C.

reduces cost

D.

offloads the creation of virtual machines to the data plane

Full Access
Question # 49

Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?

A.

Cisco DNA Center correlates information from different management protocols to obtain insights, and traditional campus management requires manual analysis.

B.

Cisco DNA Center handles management tasks at the controller to reduce the load on infrastructure devices, and traditional campus management uses the data backbone.

C.

Cisco DNA Center leverages YANG and NETCONF to assess the status of fabric and nonfabric devices, and traditional campus management uses CLI exclusively.

D.

Cisco DNA Center automatically compares security postures among network devices, and traditional campus management needs manual comparisons.

Full Access
Question # 50

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Full Access
Question # 51

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 .password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Full Access
Question # 52

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

Full Access
Question # 53

What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)

A.

It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines.

B.

It supports complex and high-scale IP addressing schemes.

C.

It enables configuration task automation.

D.

It provides increased scalability and management options.

E.

It increases security against denial-of-service attacks.

Full Access
Question # 54

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

Full Access
Question # 55

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

Full Access
Question # 56

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

A.

VLANID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

Full Access
Question # 57

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

Full Access
Question # 58

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

Full Access
Question # 59

Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

Full Access
Question # 60

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Full Access
Question # 61

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Full Access
Question # 62

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 63

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Full Access
Question # 64

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

Full Access
Question # 65

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

Full Access
Question # 66

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 67

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

Full Access
Question # 68

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

Full Access
Question # 69

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

Full Access
Question # 70

Which protocol uses the SSL?

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Full Access
Question # 71

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Full Access
Question # 72

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

i

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

!

access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

I

access-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

!

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Full Access
Question # 73

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 74

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

Full Access
Question # 75

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 76

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Full Access
Question # 77

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Swrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode active

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Full Access
Question # 78

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Full Access
Question # 79

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

Full Access
Question # 80

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Full Access
Question # 81

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Full Access
Question # 82

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Full Access
Question # 83

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 84

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

Full Access
Question # 85

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 86

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

Full Access
Question # 87

Refer to the exhibit.

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

Full Access
Question # 88

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 89

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

Full Access
Question # 90

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Full Access
Question # 91

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

Full Access
Question # 92

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Full Access
Question # 93

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

Full Access
Question # 94

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 95

Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 96

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

Full Access
Question # 97

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 98

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Full Access
Question # 99

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Full Access
Question # 100

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Full Access
Question # 101

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Full Access
Question # 102

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Full Access
Question # 103

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Full Access
Question # 104

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Full Access
Question # 105

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

A.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

hello interval 15

interface e1/1

Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Full Access
Question # 106

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

A.

int range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Full Access
Question # 107

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

A.

It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

C.

It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.

D.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

Full Access
Question # 108

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Full Access
Question # 109

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

A.

Unicode

B.

base64

C.

decimal

D.

ASCII

Full Access
Question # 110

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

A.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

B.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

C.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

D.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Full Access
Question # 111

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

A.

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

B.

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

C.

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

D.

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

Full Access
Question # 112

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

A.

port-to-multipoint

B.

broadcast

C.

point-to-point

D.

nonbroadcast

Full Access
Question # 113

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

Full Access
Question # 114

Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

Full Access
Question # 115

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

A.

passive

B.

mode on

C.

auto

D.

active

Full Access
Question # 116

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

Full Access
Question # 117

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

Full Access
Question # 118

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.

The data can pass through the cladding

Full Access
Question # 119

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

Full Access
Question # 120

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

Full Access
Question # 121

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.

Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 122

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

A.

route with the lowest cost

B.

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.

route with the shortest prefix length

D.

route with the lowest administrative distance

Full Access
Question # 123

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

B.

ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

E.

ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

Full Access
Question # 124

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

Full Access
Question # 125

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

A.

1,6,11

B.

1,5,10

C.

1,2,3

D.

5,6,7

Full Access
Question # 126

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)

A.

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

B.

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

C.

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

D.

to support load balancing via static routing

E.

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

Full Access
Question # 127

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 128

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Full Access
Question # 129

What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?

A.

move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses

B.

transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively

C.

forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses

D.

flood broadcast traffic within a VLAN

Full Access
Question # 130

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

A.

cost

B.

adminstrative distance

C.

metric

D.

as-path

Full Access
Question # 131

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

Full Access
Question # 132

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

A.

hypervisor

B.

router

C.

straight cable

D.

switch

Full Access
Question # 133

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

A.

The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.

B.

The source MAC address of the frame is unknown

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same

D.

The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

Full Access
Question # 134

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

A.

Configure the version of SSH

B.

Configure VTY access.

C.

Create a user with a password.

D.

Assign a DNS domain name

Full Access
Question # 135

Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 136

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport nonegotiate

Full Access
Question # 137

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 138

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

Full Access
Question # 139

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

A.

0

B.

2

C.

4

D.

6

Full Access
Question # 140

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

Full Access
Question # 141

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

Full Access
Question # 142

Refer to the exhibit.

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

A.

modify hello interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

Full Access
Question # 143

A corporate office uses four floors in a building

• Floor 1 has 24 users

• Floor 2 has 29 users

• Floor 3 has 28 users

•Floor 4 has 22 users

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

A.

192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

B.

192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

C.

192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor

D.

l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

Full Access
Question # 144

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

Full Access
Question # 145

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

A.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.

D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

D.

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Full Access
Question # 146

Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

A.

The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

Full Access
Question # 147

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

Full Access
Question # 148

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 149

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

Full Access
Question # 150

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Full Access
Question # 151

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

A.

10.10.10.0/28

B.

10.10.13.0/25

C.

10.10.13.144/28

D.

10.10.13.208/29

Full Access
Question # 152

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

A.

DTP

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

Full Access
Question # 153

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

B.

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

C.

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

D.

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

Full Access
Question # 154

What Is a syslog facility?

A.

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.

password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages

C.

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

Full Access
Question # 155

Refer to the exhibit.

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

A.

10.10.1.10

B.

10.10.10.20

C.

172.16.15.10

D.

192.168.0.1

Full Access
Question # 156

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right

Full Access
Question # 157

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

A.

configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides

B.

configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process

C.

configure the same router ID on both routing processes

D.

Configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides.

E.

configure both interfaces with the same area ID

Full Access
Question # 158

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

A.

global unicast

B.

link-local

C.

unique local

D.

multicast

Full Access
Question # 159

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

A.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

B.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

C.

209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

D.

209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

Full Access
Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

All ARP packets are dropped by the switch

B.

Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.

C.

All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted

D.

The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.

Full Access
Question # 161

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.

Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

A.

The packets fail to match any permit statement

B.

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

C.

A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

D.

The ACL is empty

E.

A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

Full Access
Question # 162

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

A.

IS-IS

B.

RIP

C.

Internal EIGRP

D.

OSPF

Full Access
Question # 163

An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

A.

Enable LLDP globally

B.

Disable autonegotiation

C.

Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

D.

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

Full Access
Question # 164

Where does wireless authentication happen?

A.

SSID

B.

radio

C.

band

D.

Layer 2

Full Access
Question # 165

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right

Full Access
Question # 166

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 167

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

A.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port

B.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in the MAC address table.

C.

Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.

D.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

Full Access
Question # 168

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Full Access
Question # 169

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

A.

ISATAP

B.

GRE over iPsec

C.

iPsec over ISATAP

D.

GRE

Full Access
Question # 170

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

A.

allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

B.

provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

C.

ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

D.

enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

Full Access
Question # 171

What is a DHCP client?

A.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

Full Access
Question # 172

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Full Access
Question # 173

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

Full Access
Question # 174

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service

B.

platform-as-a-service

C.

business process as service to support different types of service

D.

software-as-a-service

Full Access
Question # 175

What is a DNS lookup operation?

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Full Access
Question # 176

What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?

A.

It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

Full Access
Question # 177

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

A.

outside global

B.

outsdwde local

C.

inside global

D.

insride local

E.

outside public

F.

inside public

Full Access
Question # 178

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?

A.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number

B.

Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable

C.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number

D.

Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

Full Access
Question # 179

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

A.

builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

B.

encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default

C.

improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

D.

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address

E.

allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

Full Access
Question # 180

Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

A.

role-based access control

B.

biometrics

C.

multifactor authentication

D.

physical access control

Full Access
Question # 181

Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

Full Access
Question # 182

Refer to the exhibit.

Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?

A.

The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.

B.

The source MAC address is changed.

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

D.

The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.

Full Access
Question # 183

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor's bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor's port ID

Full Access
Question # 184

What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?

A.

It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

Full Access
Question # 185

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

A.

OpenFlow

B.

OpenStack

C.

OpFlex

D.

REST

Full Access
Question # 186

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

A.

wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network

B.

a cable connected to a physical switch on the network

C.

a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network

D.

a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Full Access
Question # 187

In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

A.

management plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

data plane

Full Access
Question # 188

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

iPv6 address

D.

OSPf process ID

E.

OSPf stub flag

Full Access
Question # 189

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 190

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

A.

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

B.

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

C.

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path

D.

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

Full Access
Question # 191

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

iPv6 address

D.

OSPf process ID

E.

OSPf stub flag

Full Access
Question # 192

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)

A.

achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering

B.

runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests

C.

handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

D.

runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers

E.

housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client

Full Access
Question # 193

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

A.

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

B.

TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol

C.

TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

D.

TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

Full Access
Question # 194

Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

A.

alert

B.

critical

C.

notice

D.

debug

Full Access
Question # 195

Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?

A.

learning

B.

forwarding

C.

blocking

D.

listening

Full Access
Question # 196

Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?

A.

password-encrypt

B.

enable password-encryption

C.

enable secret

D.

service password-encryption

Full Access
Question # 197

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

A.

builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

B.

encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default

C.

improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

D.

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address

E.

allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

Full Access
Question # 198

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

ARP

Full Access
Question # 199

When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

A.

ASCII

B.

base64

C.

binary

D.

decimal

E.

hexadecimal

Full Access
Question # 200

What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)

A.

Layer 2 forwarding

B.

coordinating VTNs

C.

tracking hosts

D.

managing the topology

E.

protecting against DDoS attacks

Full Access
Question # 201

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

A.

a DHCP Relay Agent

B.

DHCP Binding

C.

a DHCP Pool

D.

DHCP Snooping

Full Access
Question # 202

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

A.

a DHCP Relay Agent

B.

DHCP Binding

C.

a DHCP Pool

D.

DHCP Snooping

Full Access
Question # 203

Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

Full Access
Question # 204

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?

A.

interface gi0/1

no cdp enable

B.

interface gi0/1

clear cdp table

C.

interface gi0/0

no cdp advertise-v2

D.

interface gi0/0

no cdp run

Full Access
Question # 205

Refer to the exhibit.

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )

A.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

B.

This is a root bridge

C.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

D.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

E.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

Full Access
Question # 206

What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

A.

data plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

management plane

Full Access
Question # 207

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

bridge

D.

mobility express

Full Access
Question # 208

In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?

A.

Control

B.

Management

C.

Data

D.

application

Full Access
Question # 209

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

Full Access
Question # 210

What is a DHCP client?

A.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

B.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

D.

a rooter that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

Full Access
Question # 211

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 212

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Full Access
Question # 213

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 214

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Full Access
Question # 215

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Full Access
Question # 216

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Full Access
Question # 217

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Full Access
Question # 218

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Full Access
Question # 219

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Full Access
Question # 220

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Full Access
Question # 221

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 222

Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto their description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 223

Refer to the exhibit.

How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 224

How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?

A.

TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately.

B.

TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.

C.

TCP avoids using sequencing, and UDP avoids using acknowledgments.

D.

TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering.

Full Access
Question # 225

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reac B?

A.

10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10

B.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2

C.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6

D.

10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2

Full Access
Question # 226

How does MAC learning function on a switch?

A.

broadcasts frames to all ports without queueing

B.

adds unknown source MAC addresses to the address table

C.

sends a retransmission request when a new frame is received

D.

sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group

Full Access
Question # 227

Which two wireless security stewards use Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol for encryption and data integrity'? (Choose two.)

A.

WPA2

B.

WPA3

C.

Wi-Fi 6

D.

WEP

E.

WPA

Full Access