For the highest possible stability, the best power-supply choice is a redundant power supply. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware concepts, redundant PSUs are used in systems where uptime and reliability are critical. A redundant PSU configuration typically includes two power supply units operating together (often in a hot-swappable bay). If one PSU fails, the other continues supplying power, allowing the workstation to remain operational and preventing unexpected shutdowns that could interrupt CAD work or corrupt data. This directly matches the requirement for maximum stability.

A UPS improves resilience to power loss and brownouts by providing battery backup and line conditioning, but it is not a power supply type and doesn’t protect against the PSU itself failing. A surge protector helps guard against voltage spikes, but it also does not ensure system operation if the PSU fails. A modular PSU mainly improves cable management and airflow by allowing detachable cables; it can be convenient and neat, but it does not inherently increase stability compared with redundancy. Therefore, the most stability-focused PSU option is Redundant.

The correct answer is A. NFC (Near Field Communication) .

According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices, NFC is commonly used for short-range wireless communication between devices. In the context of mobile printing:

NFC-enabled printers allow a user to tap a mobile device (phone or tablet) to the printer to initiate a print job instantly without needing to configure Wi-Fi credentials or use cables.

This is particularly common in mobile-friendly environments like offices or public kiosks.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Hotspot : Provides an Internet connection, not a direct mobile-to-printer interface.

C. Infrared : Legacy technology largely replaced by NFC and Wi-Fi; rarely used in modern printers.

D. USB : Requires a wired connection, not suitable for sending a print job wirelessly from a mobile device.

In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) cloud concepts, the key differentiator between cloud deployment models is where the service is hosted and who owns/uses the underlying infrastructure. If a company’s directory services server (for example, a domain controller providing authentication/authorization and centralized identity management) is located on premises, that points to infrastructure that is owned and operated by the organization for its own internal use. This aligns best with a private cloud model, which is defined as cloud resources dedicated to a single organization and can be implemented on-premises (internally hosted) or in a dedicated off-site environment.

It is not a public cloud because public cloud services are hosted by a third-party provider and shared across multiple customers. It is not hybrid cloud because hybrid requires a mix of on-prem resources and public cloud resources working together (the question only specifies on-prem). It is not community cloud because that involves shared infrastructure among multiple organizations with common needs.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (100–150+ words):

Secure printing ensures that print jobs are not immediately output to the tray but instead held in a secure queue. The user must enter a PIN, password, or badge authentication directly at the printer to release the job. CompTIA A+ emphasizes secure printing as the correct method for environments where sensitive information such as HR files, performance reviews, or confidential reports must not be viewed by unauthorized individuals.

Audit logging tracks usage but does not protect documents from being seen on the printer tray. Wired connectivity has no relation to security or confidentiality. Duplex is simply a printing mode.

Secure printing is widely used in corporate environments so shared devices can remain shared without compromising sensitive data. The A+ curriculum describes this as a security control that ensures confidentiality in shared-print environments, making Secure Printing the proper solution.

Intermittent freezing followed by unexpected restarts after the system has been running for a while often points to a hardware stability problem that worsens with heat and time, rather than an immediate configuration or “not enough resources” issue. When diagnostics show no errors, the next CompTIA A+-style step is to look for physical signs of failing components. Swollen or leaking capacitors on the motherboard or in the power delivery area can cause unstable voltage regulation as the system warms up, leading to input lag, lockups, and spontaneous reboots even during light tasks like reading email. A visual inspection can quickly confirm this failure mode and is an appropriate next troubleshooting action when software and basic diagnostics are inconclusive.

Replacing the power supply with a higher wattage is not the best next step because the workload described is not high draw, and the symptom is not clearly tied to peak load; if a PSU is suspect, the usual step is testing with a known-good PSU of correct specs, not simply “higher wattage.” Increasing RAM is unnecessary because the system meets requirements and this would more commonly cause persistent slowness, not sudden restarts. A CMOS battery issue typically causes time resets or BIOS setting loss, not freezing and random reboots after hours.

Asandboxis an isolated virtual environment used totest or run applications securelywithout risk to the host or network. It prevents the VM from communicating with external systems, making it ideal for testing malware or suspicious software.

Option A (VDI):Virtual Desktop Infrastructure allows network communication; it does not restrict it.

Option B (Private cloud):Refers to a cloud deployment model, not a communication barrier.

Option D (Type 1 hypervisor):Runs VMs directly on hardware and doesnotinherently block communication.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

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An IDE hard drive uses a Molex connector for power. This 4-pin connector is a standard for older drives.

Why Not A (F type): F type connectors are used for coaxial cables in video and internet applications.

Why Not B (SC): SC connectors are for fiber optic cables.

Why Not D (Lightning): Lightning connectors are for Apple devices.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.1, cable types and connectors​.

Wall Outlet

(empty — nothing goes directly to the wall)

Surge Protector (Power Source: Wall Outlet)

Printer

Scanner

UPS (Power Source: Surge Protector)

Computer

Monitor

Cable Modem

Wi-Fi Router

The correct answer is C. ECC (Error-Correcting Code) .

In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware objectives, RAM types and features include technologies designed to improve reliability and data integrity.

ECC memory is specifically designed to detect and correct data errors (faults) in memory automatically. It uses additional bits to store error-checking information, allowing the system to:

Detect single-bit and some multi-bit errors

Automatically correct errors without system interruption

Improve system stability, especially in servers and critical systems

This makes ECC the best choice for recovering from data faults .

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Capacity

Capacity refers to how much data the RAM can hold (e.g., 8GB, 16GB). It has nothing to do with error detection or correction.

B. Speed

Speed (measured in MHz or MT/s) affects performance but does not provide any fault recovery capability.

D. DDR

DDR (Double Data Rate) refers to the generation/type of RAM (e.g., DDR3, DDR4, DDR5). It improves performance but does not handle errors.

E. Parity

Parity memory can detect errors but cannot correct them . Since the question specifically asks for recovery from faults, ECC is the correct answer because it both detects and corrects errors.

Final Answer: C. ECC

The correct answer is C. Firewall .

According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Security:

ACL (Access Control List) capabilities allow a device to control the flow of network traffic based on defined rules, such as permitting or denying traffic from specific IP addresses, ports, or protocols.

Firewalls —whether hardware or software—use ACLs to enforce security policies, filtering inbound and outbound traffic to protect networks and devices.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. PoE injector: Provides power over Ethernet but has no traffic filtering or ACL functionality.

B. DSL: Refers to a type of broadband connection; it does not provide ACLs.

D. Unmanaged switch: Passively forwards traffic without configuration capabilities, so it cannot implement ACLs.