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Question # 4

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

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Question # 5

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

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Question # 6

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

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Question # 7

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

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Question # 8

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

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Question # 9

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

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Question # 10

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

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Question # 11

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

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Question # 12

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Procurement statement of work

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Question # 13

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

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Question # 14

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Question # 15

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

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Question # 16

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

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Question # 17

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

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Question # 18

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Question # 19

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

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Question # 20

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

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Question # 21

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

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Question # 22

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

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Question # 23

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

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Question # 24

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 25

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

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Question # 26

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

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Question # 27

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

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Question # 28

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Monitor and Control Risk

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 29

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors.

B.

Historical information,

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Corporate knowledge base.

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Question # 30

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

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Question # 31

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Change requests

D.

Deliverables

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Question # 32

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 33

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

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Question # 34

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

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Question # 35

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

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Question # 36

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

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Question # 37

Types of internal failure costs include:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

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Question # 38

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

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Question # 39

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

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Question # 40

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Question # 41

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A.

expert judgment

B.

seller proposals

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Question # 42

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

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Question # 43

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

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Question # 44

Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Inspection

C.

Project analysis

D.

Document analysis

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Question # 45

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

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Question # 46

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

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Question # 47

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Question # 48

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

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Question # 49

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

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Question # 50

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:

A.

quality audits.

B.

process analysis.

C.

benchmarking.

D.

inspection.

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Question # 51

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

A.

Work performance data

B.

Project documents

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Requirements documentation

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Question # 52

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

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Question # 53

Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Work

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Plan Quality Management

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Question # 54

Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 55

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

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Question # 56

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

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Question # 57

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Modeling techniques

C.

Resource optimization

D.

Meetings

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Question # 58

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

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Question # 59

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Identify Risks

D.

Control Risks

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Question # 60

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

A.

Product analysis.

B.

Variance analysis.

C.

Document analysis,

D.

Decomposition.

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Question # 61

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

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Question # 62

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

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Question # 63

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

A.

Project charter

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Stakeholder register

D.

Organizational process assets

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Question # 64

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

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Question # 65

A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 66

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

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Question # 67

A reward can only be effective if it is:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

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Question # 68

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

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Question # 69

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

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Question # 70

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

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Question # 71

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Question # 72

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

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Question # 73

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

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Question # 74

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Question # 75

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

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Question # 76

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Question # 77

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Question # 78

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Question # 79

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Question # 80

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Question # 81

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

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Question # 82

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 83

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

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Question # 84

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

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Question # 85

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 86

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

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Question # 87

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

A.

Schedule network analysis

B.

Reserve analysis

C.

Alternative analysis

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 88

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

A.

Accuracy

B.

Precision

C.

Grade

D.

Quality

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Question # 89

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Question # 90

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

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Question # 91

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

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Question # 92

An input to the Control Quality process is:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

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Question # 93

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

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Question # 94

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

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Question # 95

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

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Question # 96

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A.

Vendor risk assessment diagram

B.

Risk register

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Area of responsibility summary

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Question # 97

Most experienced project managers know that:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

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Question # 98

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 99

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

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Question # 100

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

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Question # 101

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

A.

Transference

B.

Avoidance

C.

Exploring

D.

Mitigation

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Question # 102

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

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Question # 103

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

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Question # 104

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

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Question # 105

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

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