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Question # 4

If an entity makes a capital loss in a period, which of the following is the most likely way that will be allowed for relieving that capital loss?

A.

Carry forward and set against future capital gains.

B.

Use group loss relief to transfer the capital loss to another group entity.

C.

Carry backwards and set against previous years trading profits.

D.

Carry forward and set against future trading profits

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Question # 5

An entity acquires 100% of the equity shares in another entity.

The consideration paid for the shares is less than the fair value of the net assets acquired.

Which of the following is the correct accounting treatment for the difference between the consideration paid and the fair value of the net assets acquired, in accordance with IFRS 3 Business Combinations?

A.

Recognise as a gain in the consolidated statement of profit or loss.

B.

Recognise as a deferred credit and release to consolidated profit or loss over its useful economic life.

C.

Recognise as a deduction from goodwill in the consolidated statement of financial position.

D.

Recognise as a gain in the statement of changes in equity.

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Question # 6

The development of an international financial reporting standard generally goes through a number of stages.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of development?

A.

Producing an exposure draft for public comment

B.

Establishing an advisory committee

C.

Developing and publishing a discussion paper

D.

Establishing an interpretations committee

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Question # 7

What does the tax credit method of giving double taxation relief mean?

A.

Tax paid in one country may be allowed as a tax credit in another country. Relief is normally restricted to the lower of the foreign or country of residency tax.

B.

Tax paid in one country may be allowed as a tax credit in another country. Relief is normally restricted to the higher of the foreign or country of residency tax.

C.

Tax relief is gained by deducting the foreign tax from the foreign income so that only the "net" amount will be subject to tax in the country of residency.

D.

The countries agree on certain types of income which will be exempt or partially exempt in one country or the other.

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Question # 8

XY is an entity incorporated in Country B but operates in several countries. Monthly management meetings to decide on strategic matters take place in Country A, where the majority of its production happens. XY sells most of its goods to Country C.

In accordance with the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) rules on corporate residence which of the following statements is true?

A.

XY is resident in Country B because this is the country of its incorporation.

B.

XY is resident in Country C because this is the country where XY generates most of its revenue.

C.

XY is resident in Country A because this is the country of its effective management.

D.

XY is resident in Country A because this is the country where XY undertakes most of its production.

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Question # 9

The following information has been extracted from GHI's statement of financial position:

Which of the following is the total cash flow for working capital changes to be recorded in GHI's statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 December 20X5?

A.

Outflow of $240,000

B.

Inflow of 5120,000

C.

Inflow of $240,000

D.

Outflow of $120,000

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Question # 10

There are two main approaches to corporate governance: rules-based and principle-based.

Which THREE of the following are correct?

A.

Rules-based corporate governance applies to the USA and principle-based corporate governance applies to the UK.

B.

Rules-based corporate governance applies to the UK and principle-based corporate governance applies to the USA.

C.

Sarbanes Oxley Act (SOX) is a rules-based approach to corporate governance.

D.

Sarbanes Oxley Act (SOX) is a principle-based approach to corporate governance.

E.

A principle-based approach will mean the entity must comply or explain and a rules-based approach will have appropriate penalties for transgression.

F.

Best practice will use a rules-based approach to corporate governance and will have appropriate penalties for transgression.

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Question # 11

ST has an asset that was classified as held for sale at 30 June 20X4. The asset's carrying value was $230,000 and its fair value $210,000.

The cost of disposal was estimated to be $15,000.

In accordance with IFRS 5 Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations, which of the following values should be used for the asset in the statement of financial position as at 30 June 20X4?

A.

$230,000

B.

$215,000

C.

$210,000

D.

$195,000

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Question # 12

CDO is an entity that is preparing to apply to its local stock market for a listing. CDO is currently run by a board of ten directors, each of whom manages a department of CDO. The board is chaired by Ms E who is also CDO's Chief Executive Officer.

Which TWO of the following actions would assist CDO to meet corporate governance regulations?

A.

Separate the roles of Chair of the Board and Chief Executive Officer and appoint different individuals to each role

B.

Ensure that no part of any director’s remuneration is linked to corporate or individual performance

C.

Appoint a number of non-executive directors to the board of CDO.

D.

Allow all directors to vote on their own remuneration increases

E.

Allow the Chief Executive Officer to appoint all new directors when a vacancy arises

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Question # 13

Which of the following is NOT a primary need for regulating financial reporting information of incorporated entities?

A.

To improve the reliability of information for users.

B.

To make information more consistent.

C.

To make information more comparable.

D.

To ensure that information is consistent with its legal form.

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Question # 14

RS purchased an asset on 1 May 20X1 for $200,000, exclusive of import duties of $25,000.

The asset was sold on 1 December 20X3 for $450,000, incurring costs to sell of $15,000.

RS is resident in Country Y where indexation is allowable from the date of purchase to the date of sale.

The indexation factor increased by 40% in the period 1 May 20X1 to 1 December 20X3.

Capital gains are taxed at 25%.

What is the capital tax due from RS on disposal of the asset?

A.

$120,000

B.

$38,750

C.

$30,000

D.

$28,500

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Question # 15

An entity bought a capital item for $110,000 on 1 March 20X4 incurring legal fees at the date of purchase of $2,500.

On 1 May 20X4 additional costs classified as capital expenditure by the tax rules of the country of $25,000 were incurred in respect of the asset. On 1 June 20X4 repairs not classified as capital expenditure were incurred at a cost of $15,000.

The asset was sold for $250,000 on 30 November 20X8 and costs to sell were incurred of $4,300.

Calculate the chargeable gain on the disposal.

Give your answer to the nearest $.

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Question # 16

The International Accounting Standards Board's "The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting" (known as The Conceptual Framework) states that "faithful representation" is a fundamental qualitative characteristic.

In accordance with the Conceptual Framework which of the following is NOT part of faithful representation?

A.

Complete

B.

Neutral

C.

Free from error

D.

Comparable

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Question # 17

MN recently took out a 5 year term loan to buy raw materials to take advantage of a supplier's bulk discount that had been offered to them.

What approach to financing working capital has MN undertaken?

A.

Aggressive

B.

Moderate

C.

Conservative

D.

Permanent

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Question # 18

Country ZZ allows the cost of a capital asset to be adjusted for an indexation allowance which takes into consideration the effect of inflation, although the indexation allowance cannot convert a chargeable gain into a chargeable loss.

The following data relates to the sale of an asset ABC has the following working capital ratios at 31 December 20X2:

Dunng the year ended 31 December 20X4 credit purchases wefe $1,700,000 and at 31 December 20X4 the outstanding trade payables balance was $340,000

Calculate the working capital cycle for ABC.

Give your answer to the nearest whole number of days and assume there are 365 days in a year. March 20X4:

Calculate the chargeable gain or loss in respect of the sale of this asset.

Give your answer to the nearest $.

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Question # 19

PP supplies zero-rated and standard-rated goods. During the year ended 30 March 20X3, the standard-rated goods made up 50% of the total supplies. During the year ended 30 March 20X4 this percentage increased to 60%.

What percentage of input tax suffered can PP claim back in the year ended 30 March 20X4?

Give your answer as a whole number.

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Question # 20

What is the correct classification of a 90-day government bond?

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Question # 21

Which THREE of the following statements are NOT true of the IFRS Foundation trustees?

A.

Are involved in the technical matters relating to accounting standards

B.

Are mainly from Europe and the USA

C.

Receive funding by donations from the general public

D.

Responsible for appointing members of the IA5B

E.

Responsible of appointing members of the IFRS interpretations committee

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Question # 22

For an entity to be exempt from preparing consolidated financial statements it must meet certain criteria specified in IFRS 10 Consolidated Financial Statements.

Which of the following conditions would give exemption from preparing consolidated financial statements?

A.

The parent's securities are publicly traded.

B.

The parent is in the process of issuing securities in a public securities market.

C.

The parent is a wholly owned subsidiary of another entity.

D.

All of the parent's subsidiaries are in one country.

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Question # 23

On 1 July 20X7, VWX enters into a 12-month lease for personal computers paying a non-refundable deposit of $600. Lease payments of $500 are paid monthly in arrears. VWX chooses to recognise the assets in the lease as short life and low value

Which of the following gives the correct value for the expense in the statement of profit or loss and corresponding prepayment and accrual in VWX's statement of financial position for the year ended 31 December 20X7?

A

B

C

D

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Question # 24

The following data has been extracted from GH's accounting records:

What is GH's average inventory days for the year ended 31 March 20X3?

A.

39 days

B.

43 days

C.

25 days

D.

28 days

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Question # 25

The financial statements of JK for the year ended 31 August 20X4 were approved on 10 November 20X4.

Within these financial statements which of the following would have been treated as a non-adjusting event in accordance with IAS 10 Events After the Reporting Period?

A.

Inventory which was originally valued at its cost of $45,000 being sold for $37,000 in September 20X4.

B.

A fire in JK's main warehouse on 3 September 20X4 destroying 60% of the inventory that had been held at the year end.

C.

Notification received on 31 August that one of JK's major customers had gone into liquidation and was unlikely to pay any outstanding invoices.

D.

The completion of a court case on 5 November 20X4 in which JK was ordered to pay damages of $150,000.

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Question # 26

Mr AM is the owner of Waxco Ltd. Mr AM was born in India, but currently resides in the USA. He has gained dual Indian and American citizenship.

Mr AM first registered Waxco Ltd in the USA when he started the company ten years ago. However, because of lower costs, the company moved its central management station to Germany two years ago. Waxco Ltd

has other smaller offices such as call centres across Asia, in locations such as Pakistan and Cambodia, however Waxco Ltd only currently sell goods in the USA.

Which of the countries mentioned are relevant for determining Waxco Ltd's competent jurisdiction?

A.

The USA

B.

Germany

C.

India

D.

Pakistan

E.

Cambodia

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Question # 27

UK purchased an asset, with a useful economic life of 10 years, on 1 January 20X5 for $40,000. The asset was revalued on 31 December 20X6 to 544,000 and the directors believed its total useful economic life remained unchanged On 31 December 20X7 UK sells the asset for $50,000

How much will be recorded as a profit on disposal of the asset in UK's statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X7?

Give your answer to the nearest $.

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Question # 28

To apply the fundamental principles of the Code of Ethics, existing and potential threats to the entity first need to be identified and evaluated.

Which THREE of the following are identified in the Code as threats?

A.

Confidentiality threat

B.

Self-interest threats

C.

Self-review threats

D.

Familiarity threats

E.

Integrity threats

F.

Objectivity threats

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Question # 29

KL has S90.000 of plant and machinery which was acquired on 1 June 20X4. Tax depreciation rates on plant and machinery are 20% reducing balance. All plant and machinery was sold for 560,000 on 1 June 20X6

Calculate the tax balancing allowance or charge on disposal tor the year ended 31 May 20X7 and state the effect on the taxable profit.

A.

A balancing allowance of $2,400 reduces taxable profit.

B.

A balancing charge of $2,400 reduces taxable profit.

C.

A balancing charge of $2,400 increases taxable profit.

D.

A balancing allowance of $2,400 increases taxable profit.

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Question # 30

Country X levies a duty on alcoholic drinks. Where the alcohol content is above 40% by volume the duty levied is $5 per 1 litre bottle.

What type of tax is this duty?

A.

Specific unit tax

B.

Ad valorem tax

C.

Direct tax

D.

Single-stage sales tax

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Question # 31

In accordance with the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting, which TWO of the following qualitative characteristics of useful financial information should be considered when selecting a measurement basis?

A.

Relevance

B.

Comparability

C.

Verifiability

D.

Faithful representation

E.

Timeliness

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Question # 32

UV's financial statements for the year ended 31 March 20X8 were approved for publication on 30 June 20X8.

In accordance with IAS 10 Events After the Reporting Period, which of the following material events would have been classified as a non-adjusting event in these financial statements?

A.

On 1 June 20X8 UV's auditors discovered that an error in valuation had caused the closing inventory to be overvalued by $150,000.

B.

On 10 April 20X8 UV received a communication stating that one of its customers had ceased trading and gone into liquidation. The balance outstanding at 31 March 20X8 was unlikely to be paid.

C.

On 1 June 20X8 UV was awarded damages of $70,000 in respect of a legal claim that it had made against the local government authority in October 20X7.

D.

On 28 April 20X8 a fire destroyed half of UV's main production facility. Output was severely reduced for six months.

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Question # 33

Which of the following would NOT normally be subject to a withholding tax?

A.

Royalties paid

B.

Profit for the year

C.

Interest on fixed term loans

D.

Equity dividends paid

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Question # 34

An asset has the following values:

If the asset was sold for its fair value, selling costs of $1,500 would be incurred.

Which of the following is the value of the impairment loss to be recognised for this asset in accordance with IAS 36 Impairment of Assets?

A.

$0

B.

$300

C.

$1,200

D.

$2,000

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Question # 35

The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (known as the IASB's conceptual framework) includes one underlying assumption about the preparation of financial statements and two fundamental qualitative characteristics for financial information.

Identify the underlying assumption and one of the fundamental characteristics by placing one of the options in each of the boxes below.

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Question # 36

Which of the following would be capitalized as an intangible asset in accordance with IAS 38 Intangible Assets?

A.

The cost of market research into a new geographical market.

B.

The cost of assets used in the research and development department.

C.

The cost of testing a new process which will create efficiency savings of 10% once implemented.

D.

The cost of advertising the launch of a new product.

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Question # 37

Which of the following statements about trade payables management is false?

A.

Trade payables are an important source of finance.

B.

When goods are in short supply customers who pay immediately are likely to be given priority over customers who take credit.

C.

Trade payables should be paid as quickly as possible.

D.

Goods or services may be more costly if extended credit is required.

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Question # 38

OP holds an investment property purchased on 1 January 20X3 for $700,000 with a useful economic life of 25 years.

At 31 December 20X5 the fair value of the investment property was $750,000 with a revised useful economic life of 25 years from that date.

OP has been carrying the investment property using the cost model until 31 December 20X5.

The directors wish to change their valuation method to fair value in accordance with IAS 40 Investment Property.

Which of the following is the correct treatment of the revaluation gain and the value of the property in the statement of financial position at 31 December 20X5?

A.

A gain of $134,000 taken to the statement of profit or loss and $750,000 shown on the statement of financial position.

B.

A gain of $106,000 taken to the statement of profit or loss and $720,000 shown on the statement of financial position.

C.

A gain of $134,000 taken to other comprehensive income and $750,000 is shown on the statement of financial position.

D.

A gain of $106,000 taken to other comprehensive income and $720,000 is shown on the statement of financial position.

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Question # 39

You work in the finance department of an entity. A director has approached you and asked you to falsify sales invoices which would significantly inflate revenue. The CIMA Code of Ethics suggests that you should deal with such an ethical dilemma by following a number of stages.

Place each of the stages identified below into chronological order.

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Question # 40

Which of the following is not a possible tax rate structure?

A.

Progressive

B.

Proportional

C.

Direct

D.

Regressive

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Question # 41

Which of the following is NOT a type of supply for value added tax (VAT)?

A.

Fixed

B.

Standard-rated

C.

Exempt

D.

Zero-rated

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Question # 42

Which of the following would be found under the heading "other comprehensive income" in the statement of total comprehensive income?

A.

Gain or loss on revaluation of a non-current asset

B.

Income from investments

C.

Dividends paid

D.

Increase or decrease in provision for irrecoverable debts

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Question # 43

Which TWO of the following would improve a company's short term cash flow position?

A.

Postponing non essential capital expenditure

B.

Increasing the working capital cycle by making payments to suppliers early

C.

Taking advantage of bulk discounts offered on inventory purchases

D.

Reducing levels of inventory by implementing a just in time system for purchasing

E.

Paying a bonus to staff for exceptional performance

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Question # 44

Which of the following is a feature of a direct tax?

A.

The formal incidence and effective incidence are usually the same.

B.

It is levied on one part of the economy with the intention that it will be passed on to another.

C.

It is not levied on the eventual payer of the tax.

D.

It cannot be related to the individual circumstances of the tax payer.

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Question # 45

Which of the following is an effect of using equity accounting to include an entity in the consolidated statement of financial position of a group?

A.

A single figure is included in net assets which is the sum of the initial cost of investment in the investee entity plus the group share of all changes in net assets since acquisition.

B.

100% of each asset and liability of the investee entity is included with the investing entity's balances.

C.

The group share of each asset and liability of the investee entity is included with the investing entity's balances.

D.

The investment in the investee entity is included in non-current assets at cost to the investing entity.

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Question # 46

In accordance with IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements, which of the following will be shown in the statement of changes in equity?

A.

Proceeds from share issue, dividends received and profit for the period.

B.

Proceeds from share issue, other income and profit for the period.

C.

Proceeds from share issue, dividends paid and revaluation surplus.

D.

Other income, dividends paid and revaluation surplus.

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Question # 47

In accordance with IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment, in which of the following situations would subsequent expenditure on a non-current asset be capitalised?

A.

An entity purchased an aircraft five years ago, when its engines were separately identified in the accounting records. The engines now need to be replaced at a cost of $2 million each. When the engines are replaced the aircraft is expected to be airworthy for a further 5 years.

B.

An entity's head office building suffered a major fire, the upper floors and roof were completely destroyed. The entity proposes to restore the building at a cost of $1 million and move back in to the building to use it as a head office again.

C.

An entity's delivery vehicle was in a car park when the car park was flooded. The engine and interior of the vehicle needed extensive repair and renovation costing $25,000.

D.

A manufacturing entity closes its factory for two weeks each summer for routine maintenance and repairs. The current year's cost of maintenance and repairs was $62,000.

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Question # 48

The statement of profit or loss for PQ, ST and AB for the year ended 31 December 20X0 are shown below:

1. PQ acquired 80% of its subsidiary, ST, on 1 January 20X0 and 40% of its associate, AB, on 1 September 20X0.

2. Since acquistion PQ has sold goods to ST and AB for $20,000 and $30,000 respectively. At the year end both ST and AB have 50% of these goods remaining in inventory. PQ uses a mark-up of 20% on all of its sales.

3. Since acquisition the goodwill in respect of ST has been impaired by $8,000 and the investment in AB has been impaired by $2,000.

4. PQ uses the fair value method for non-controlling interest at acquisition.

What is the revenue figure to be included in PQ's consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X0?

A.

$450,000

B.

$440,000

C.

$480,000

D.

$476,000

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Question # 49

Statements of financial position for FG, IJ and KL at 31 December 20X5 include the following balances:

FG acquired 90% of IJ's equity shares for $358,000 on 1 July 20X5 when IJ's retained earnings were $98,000.

FG acquired 100% of KL's equity shares for $360,000 on 1 January 20X5 when KL's retained earnings were $155,000.

FG used the proportion of net assets method to value non-controlling interests at acquisition.

KL sold a piece of land to FG for $130,000 on 1 September 20X5. At the date of transfer the land had a carrying value of $50,000.

The management of FG expect KL to make profits in the future and no impairment ot its goodwill was proposed at 31 December 20X5.

Calculate the total goodwill to be included in FG's consolidated statement of financial position as at 31 December 20X5.

Give your answer to the nearest whole $.

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Question # 50

Which TWO of the following are functions of the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) Advisory Council?

A.

To give advice to the International Accounting Standards Board on agenda decisions and priorities in its work

B.

To inform the International Accounting Standards Board of the views of organizations on major standard setting projects

C.

To approve IFRSs for publication

D.

To review new financial reporting issues not already covered by IFRS

E.

To appoint the members of the International Accounting Standards Board

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Question # 51

The Code of Ethics lists five fundamental principles. One of these is.

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Question # 52

Statements of financial position for YZ, BC and DE at 31 March 20X2 include the following balances:

YZ purchased 90% of BC's equity shares for $508,000 on 1 January 20X2. On 1 January 20X2 BC's retained earnings were $183,000. YZ uses the proportion of net assets method to value non-controlling interest at acquisition.

YZ purchased 30% of DE's equity shares on 1 April 20X1 for $112,000. DE's retained earnings at 1 April 20X1 were $88,000.

On 1 February 20X2 YZ sold goods to BC for $28,000 at a mark up of 25% on cost. All the goods were still in BC's inventory at 31 March 20X2.

Calculate the value of inventory that will be included in YZ's consolidated statement of financial position at 31 March 20X2.

Give your answer to the nearest whole $.

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Question # 53

STU has a non-current asset which originally cost $250,000, has an expected life of 8 years and an estimated residual value of $25,000. The asset is depreciated at 25% a year on a reducing balance basis On 1 July 20X5 the accumulated depreciation for this asset is $109,375

What is the depreciation charge for the year ending 30 June 20X6?

Give your answer to the nearest whole number.

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Question # 54

The following information is extracted from the trial balance of YY at 30 September 20X3.

i. Included in revenue is a refundable deposit of $20 million for a sales transaction that is due to take place on 14 October 20X3.

ii. The cost of closing inventory is $28 million, however, the net realisable value is estimated at $25 million.

iii. The interest free loan was obtained on 1 January 20X3. The loan is repayable in 12 quarterly installments starting on 31 March 20X3. All installments to date have been paid on time.

Calculate the cost of sales that would be shown in YY's statement of profit or loss for the year ended 30 September 20X3.

Give your answer to the nearest $ million.

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Question # 55

T T T is an online retailer. It has 1,000 units of Product X in inventory at the year end. The following information relates to Product X:

c

What is the amount that should be included in the cost of TTT's inventory of Product X?

A.

$22,150

B.

$20,000

C.

$20,450

D.

$25,350

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Question # 56

The following information relates to AA.

Extract of Trial Balance at 31 December 20X4;

Notes

(i) Inventory at 31 December 20X4 was valued at cost at $30.

(ii) The loan which was received on 1 July 20X4 is repayable in 20X9.

(iii) Corporate income tax represents an over-provision of tax for the year ended 31 December 20X3. AA reported a loss for tax purposes for the year ended 31 December 20X4 and a tax refund is expected amounting to $20.

(iv) Cost of sales, administration and distribution costs need to be adjusted for the following:

What figures should be entered on the face of the Statement of profit or Loss for the year ended 31 December 20X4 in relation to Interest and Corporate income tax?

A.

Interest $25 Corporate income tax $(37)

B.

Interest $25 Corporate income tax $37

C.

Interest $50 Corporate income tax $(3)

D.

Interest $50 Corporate income tax $3

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Question # 57

Statements of financial position as at 31 December 20X8 for JK, LM and PQ are as follows:

[1] JK purchased 80% of LM's $1 equity shares on 1 January 20X8 for $260,000 when the retained earnings of JK were $110,000. At that date the non-controlling interest had a fair value of $63,000.

[2] JK purchased 25% of PQ's $1 equity shares on 1 January 20X8 for $90,000 when the retained earnings of PQ were $96,000.

[3] During the year JK sold goods to LM for $32,000 at a mark up of 33.33% on cost. Half of the goods were still in LM's inventory at 31 December 20X8.

[4] LM transferred $32,000 to JK on 30 December 20X8 in settlement of the inter-group trade. JK did not record the cash in its financial records until 2 January 20X9.

Calculate the goodwill arising on the acquisition LM.

Give your answer to the nearest $.

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Question # 58

Which of the following would be the most immediate impact of overtrading?

A.

An inability to pay trade payables.

B.

Having to offer bulk discounts to customers.

C.

An inability to pay dividends to shareholders.

D.

A shortage of inventory

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Question # 59

XY acquired 75% of the equity shares of CD on 1 January 20X2 for $230,000.

On 1 January 20X2 CD had the following balances:

XY uses the proportionate share of net assets method to value non controlling interest at acquisition.

Calculate the goodwill arising on the acquisition of CD.

Give your answer to nearest whole number.

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Question # 60

Which THREE of the following are included within an entity's statement of profit or loss?

A.

Revaluation surplus

B.

Dividends paid

C.

Impairment loss

D.

Finance income

E.

Dividends revived

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Question # 61

Below are extracts from LLL's financial statements for the year ended 31 December 20X2.

Depreciation of $25,000 was charged on properly, plant and equipment in the year and there were no disposals

What is the cash generated from operations for inclusion in LLL's statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 December 20X2?

A.

$355 000

B.

$390,000

C.

$415,000

D.

$435,000

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Question # 62

An entity's policy is to finance the investment in working capital using short-term financing to fund all of its investment in fluctuating net current assets as well as some of its investment in permanent net current assets.

What is this working capital financing policy known as?

A.

Conservative

B.

Moderate

C.

Aggressive

D.

Short term

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Question # 63

Which of the following is NOT a principle in the CIMA Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants?

A.

Integrity

B.

Professional competence and due care

C.

Timeliness

D.

Objectivity

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Question # 64

An entity has an inventory holding period of 52 days.

This means that the inventory:

A.

takes 52 days to arrive after it has been ordered.

B.

stays in the entity's warehouse for an average of 52 days before it is sold.

C.

takes 52 days to manufacture.

D.

takes 52 days to be paid for.

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Question # 65

Which THREE of the following are part of the International Accounting Standards Committee (IASC) Foundation structure?

A.

International Accounting Standards Board

B.

Standards Advisory Council

C.

International Financial Reporting Interpretations Committee

D.

International Organisation of Securities Commission

E.

Standards Application Council

F.

International Financial Reporting Evaluations Committee

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Question # 66

EF has been offering its customers a 60 day credit period, but now wants to improve its cash flow.

EF is proposing to offer a 2% discount for payment in 15 days.

Assume a 365 day year and an invoice value of $100.

Which of the following is the effective annual interest rate EF will incur for this action?

A.

35.4%

B.

17.8%

C.

13.1%

D.

63.4%

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Question # 67

The International Accounting Standards Board's "The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting" identifies fundamental and enhancing qualitative characteristics of financial statements.

Which of the following is included within the fundamental characteristics?

A.

Comparability

B.

Verifiability

C.

Understandability

D.

Materiality

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Question # 68

XYZ operates in Country A where tax rules state that entertaining costs and donations to political parties are disallowable for tax purposes.

XYZ calculated both its accounting and taxable profits for the year ended 31 December 20X2 after deducting $10,000 of entertaining costs.

It is considering what impact the ruling that "entertaining costs are disallowable for tax purposes" will have on its two profit figures.

Which of the following correctly states the impact of the ruling on the profits already calculated?

A.

Accounting profit will not be affected but taxable profit will increase by $10,000.

B.

Both accounting and taxable profits will increase by $10,000.

C.

Accounting profit will decrease by $10,000 and taxable profit will increase by $10,000.

D.

Both accounting and taxable profits will decrease by $10,000.

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Question # 69

Which THREE of the following are included in the International Accounting Standards Board's "The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting"?

A.

The objective of financial statements

B.

Specification of the financial statements that must be presented

C.

Qualitative characteristics of financial statements

D.

Definition of the headings to use in financial statements

E.

The elements of financial statements

F.

The formats of financial statements

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Question # 70

The following information is extracted from the statement of financial position for ZZ at 31 March 20X3:

Included within cost of sales in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 March 20X3 is $20 million relating to the loss on the sale of plant and equipment which had cost $100 million in June 20X1.

Depreciation is charged on all plant and equipment at 25% on a straight line basis with a full year's depreciation charged in the year of acquisition and none in the year of sale.

The revaluation reserve relates to the revaluation of ZZ's property.

The total depreciation charge for property, plant and equipment in ZZ's statement of profit of loss for the year ended 31 March 20X3 is $80 million.

The corporate income tax expense in ZZ's statement of profit or loss for year ended 31 March 20X3 is $28 million.

ZZ is preparing its statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 March 20X3.

What figure should be included within cash flows from investing activities for the proceeds of sale of plant and equipment?

A.

$55 million

B.

$95 million

C.

$80 million

D.

$120 million

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Question # 71

Corporate governance is the means by which an entity is operated and

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Question # 72

Statements of financial position for FG, IJ and KL at 31 December 20X5 include the following balances:

FG acquired 90% of IJ's equity shares for $358,000 on 1 July 20X5 when IJ's retained earnings were $98,000.

FG acquired 100% of KL's equity shares for $360,000 on 1 January 20X5 when KL's retained earnings were $155,000.

FG used the proportion of net assets method to value non-controlling interests at acquisition.

KL sold a piece of land to FG for $130,000 on 1 September 20X5. At the date of transfer the land had a carrying value of $50,000.

The management of FG expect KL to make profits in the future and no impairment ot its goodwill was proposed at 31 December 20X5.

Calculate the non-controlling interest balance in FG's consolidated statement of financial position at 31 December 20X5.

Give your answer to nearest whole $.

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Question # 73

Which TWO of the following statements about accounting for associates are true?

A.

Intra associate transactions are not eliminated

B.

Unrealised profits are adjusted for

C.

Intra associate transactions are eliminated

D.

Unrealised profits are not adjusted for

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Question # 74

If a parent entity is to be exempt from preparing consolidated financial statements it needs to satisfy certain conditions according to IFRS 10 Consolidated Financial Statements.

Which TWO of the following are conditions that need to be satisfied to be exempt?

A.

The parent entity is itself a wholly owned subsidiary of another entity.

B.

The ultimate parent of the parent entity publishes consolidated financial statements which are publicly available.

C.

The parent 's investment in its subsidiaries are all below 100%.

D.

The parent entity has no more than 10 subsidiaries or associated entities.

E.

The parent entity has subsidiaries, one or more of which publishes consolidated financial statements.

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