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Question # 4

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

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Question # 5

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

A.

Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B.

Contain the standard activity list.

C.

Document and support the project change requests.

D.

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

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Question # 6

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

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Question # 7

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

A.

Performance measurement baseline.

B.

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.

Analysis of past performance.

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Question # 8

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?

A.

Projectized

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Functional

D.

Balanced matrix

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Question # 9

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Modeling techniques

C.

Resource optimization

D.

Meetings

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Question # 10

Which of the following sets are inputs to the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Project charter and requirements documentation

B.

Project charter and business documents

C.

Project charter and stakeholder requirements

D.

Business documents and requirements traceability matrix

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Question # 11

Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?

A.

Post project artifacts in a transparent fashion and engage stakeholders on a regular basis.

B.

Make surveys among the stakeholders and meet with the team once a month.

C.

Create a social network and post news there.

D.

Create personalized emails for each stakeholder, asking for requests and reviewing objectives with them periodically.

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Question # 12

Which of the following are outputs from the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?

A.

Project scope statement and accepted deliverables

B.

Scope baseline and project documents update

C.

Accepted deliverables and enterprise environmental factors

D.

Scope baseline and work performance information

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Question # 13

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

A.

Feedback analysis

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Communication management plan

D.

Stakeholder management plan

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Question # 14

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

A.

Change control plan

B.

Stakeholder register

C.

Risk log

D.

Communications management plan

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Question # 15

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 16

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

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Question # 17

A project team submits a weekly progress report to the project manager. The project manager consolidates the same report and sends a complete progress report to the stakeholders. What is this an example of?

A.

Informal communication

B.

Internal communication

C.

Formal communication

D.

Horizontal communication

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Question # 18

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Create VVBS

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Define Scope

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Question # 19

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 20

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

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Question # 21

A regression line is used to estimate:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

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Question # 22

The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:

A.

Collect Requirements.

B.

Conduct Procurements.

C.

Estimate Activity Durations.

D.

Estimate Activity Resources.

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Question # 23

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (T&M)

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Question # 24

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

A.

Organizational process updates

B.

Quality metrics

C.

Change requests

D.

Quality control measurements

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Question # 25

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

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Question # 26

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

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Question # 27

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

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Question # 28

Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Budget at completion (BAC)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

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Question # 29

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

A.

Benefit

B.

Initiative

C.

Objective

D.

Process

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Question # 30

The features and functions that characterize a result, product, or service can refer to:

A.

project scope

B.

product scope

C.

service scope

D.

product breakdown structure

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Question # 31

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?

A.

Legal restrictions

B.

Financial considerations

C.

Commercial database

D.

Geographic distribution of facilities

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Question # 32

If you are using an Ishikawa diagram to determine the root cause of problems, which process are you engaged in?

A.

Plan Quality Management

B.

Control Quality

C.

Risk Management

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Question # 33

What purpose does the hierarchical locus of stakeholder communications serve?

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the tocus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media, and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

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Question # 34

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Question # 35

What type of meeting is held to discuss prioritized product backlog items?

A.

Status

B.

Daily standup

C.

Iteration planning

D.

Release planning

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Question # 36

Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?

A.

Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer's satisfaction.

B.

Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.

C.

Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.

D.

Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.

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Question # 37

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Forecasting methods

C.

Earned value management

D.

Analytical techniques

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Question # 38

A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Performance reporting.

C.

Bidder conferences.

D.

Reserve analysis.

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Question # 39

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

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Question # 40

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

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Question # 41

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

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Question # 42

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

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Question # 43

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

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Question # 44

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

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Question # 45

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

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Question # 46

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

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Question # 47

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

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Question # 48

Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Risk register

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Question # 49

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Question # 50

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Question # 51

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

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Question # 52

The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Question # 53

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

A.

$50

B.

$100

C.

$125

D.

$175

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Question # 54

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

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Question # 55

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 56

A firm contracted an event management company to conduct the annual sales day event. The agreement states that the event management company will charge the firm for the actuals and receive 8% of the total cost. What type of contract Is this?

A.

Time and material (T8M)

B.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

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Question # 57

Which contract type is least desirable to a vendor?

A.

Fixed price with economic price adjustment (FPEPA)

B.

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF>

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF>

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Question # 58

What organizational asset can influence the Plan Risk Management process?

A.

Corporate policies and procedures for social media, ethics, and security

B.

Organizational risk policy

C.

Stakeholder register templates and instructions

D.

Organizational communication requirements

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Question # 59

When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?

A.

Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.

B.

Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult.

C.

Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain.

D.

Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes.

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Question # 60

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 61

A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 62

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

A.

Issue log

B.

Change log

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Change requests

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Question # 63

Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Purchase order

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Bidder conference

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Question # 64

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

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Question # 65

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Question # 66

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

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Question # 67

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

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Question # 68

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

A.

Control charts

B.

Pareto diagrams

C.

Ishikavva diagrams

D.

Checksheets

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Question # 69

An output of the Validate Scope process is:

A.

A requirements traceability matrix.

B.

The scope management plan.

C.

Work performance reports.

D.

Change requests.

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Question # 70

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

A.

Plan Schedule Management.

B.

Develop Project Charter.

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Plan Scope Management.

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Question # 71

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Question # 72

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 73

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

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Question # 74

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

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Question # 75

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

A.

-2,000

B.

0

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

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Question # 76

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

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Question # 77

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Question # 78

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 79

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

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Question # 80

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

A.

low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

B.

low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

C.

high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

D.

high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

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Question # 81

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

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Question # 82

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

A.

Budget estimates

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Procurement documents

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Question # 83

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

A.

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.

Keep the stakeholder informed.

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Question # 84

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

A.

a Knowledge Area

B.

a Process Group

C.

program management

D.

portfolio management

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Question # 85

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Plan Human Resource Management

D.

Develop Project Team

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Question # 86

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

A.

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

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Question # 87

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

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Question # 88

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

A.

buyers

B.

sellers

C.

business partners

D.

product users

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Question # 89

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

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Question # 90

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Question # 91

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

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Question # 92

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

A.

project documents updates.

B.

project management plan updates.

C.

change requests.

D.

work performance information.

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Question # 93

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

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Question # 94

When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:

A.

realigned.

B.

performed.

C.

improved.

D.

controlled.

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Question # 95

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Question # 96

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

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Question # 97

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

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Question # 98

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

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Question # 99

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 100

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

A.

Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B.

Historical information and change control procedures

C.

Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D.

Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

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Question # 101

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

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Question # 102

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

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Question # 103

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

A.

3

B.

5

C.

7

D.

9

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Question # 104

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

16

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Question # 105

Which item is a cost of conformance?

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

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Question # 106

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

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Question # 107

An input to the Control Quality process is:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

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Question # 108

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Question # 109

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

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Question # 110

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

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Question # 111

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

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Question # 112

In project management, a temporary project can be:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

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Question # 113

Which knowledge area includes the processes to identify, define, and unify the various project management processes?

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Qualify Management

D.

Project Risk Management

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Question # 114

According to the PMI Talent Triangle. leadership skills relate to the ability to:

A.

understand the high-level overview of the organization

B.

tailor traditional and agile tools for the project

C.

work with stakeholders to develop an appropriate project delivery

D.

guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals

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Question # 115

A project manager is preparing to meet with three crucial project stakeholders on a new project Which tools and techniques can the project manager use to capture stakeholder interest?

A.

Review stakeholder register and meeting

B.

Data analysis and communication skills

C.

Data gathering and data analysis

D.

Communication skills and cultural awareness

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Question # 116

At the beginning of an iteration, the team will work to determine how many of the highest-priority items on the backlog list can be delivered within the next iteration. Which of the following activities is done first?

A.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

B.

Create Scope Baseline

C.

Collect Requirements

D.

Define Scope

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Question # 117

During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 118

Which is an example of analogous estimating?

A.

Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.

B.

Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.

C.

Estimates are created by analyzing data.

D.

Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.

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Question # 119

Which are examples of processes that may be used once or at predefined points in the project life cycle?

A.

Develop Project Charter and Close Project or Phase

B.

Define Activities and Acquire Resources

C.

Control Schedule and Conduct Procurements

D.

Monitor Communications and Control Costs

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Question # 120

The project manager is dividing the project scope into smaller pieces, and repeating this process until no more subdivisions are required. At this point the project manager is able to estimate costs and activities for each element.

What are these elements called?

A.

Project activities

B.

Work packages

C.

Planning packages

D.

Project deliverables

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Question # 121

Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?

A.

Develop Team

B.

Manage Team

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Resource Management

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Question # 122

Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

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Question # 123

Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of which process?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurement Management

C.

Analyze Procurements

D.

Control Procurements

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Question # 124

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis

B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty

C.

Data analysis and risk audits

D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system

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Question # 125

The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?

A.

Least cost

B.

Qualifications only

C.

Sole source

D.

Fixed budget

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Question # 126

Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?

A.

Leadership management

B.

Technical project management

C.

Strategic management

D.

Business management

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Question # 127

What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?

A.

Earned value management (EVM)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC)

C.

Earned value analysis (EVA)

D.

Budget at completion (BAG)

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Question # 128

The project manager is creating the communications management plan Which group of inputs Is required to begin?

A.

Work performance reports, change requests, and risk register

B.

Work performance data, project documents, and stakeholder engagement plan

C.

Project charter, project management plan, and project documents

D.

Work performance data, stakeholder register, and team management plan

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Question # 129

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

A.

Before the Define Activities process

B.

During the Define Activities process

C.

Before the Sequence Activities process

D.

During the Sequence Activities process

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Question # 130

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors updates.

C.

Project staff assignments.

D.

Organizational charts and position descriptions.

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Question # 131

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Question # 132

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

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Question # 133

When should quality planning be performed?

A.

While developing the project charter

B.

In parallel with the other planning processes

C.

As part of a detailed risk analysis

D.

As a separate step from the other planning processes

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Question # 134

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 135

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

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Question # 136

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

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Question # 137

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

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Question # 138

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

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Question # 139

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

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Question # 140

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Question # 141

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

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Question # 142

A project lifecycle is defined as:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

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Question # 143

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

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Question # 144

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

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Question # 145

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Question # 146

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Question # 147

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Question # 148

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Question # 149

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Question # 150

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

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Question # 151

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

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Question # 152

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

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Question # 153

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

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Question # 154

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

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Question # 155

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

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Question # 156

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

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Question # 157

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

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Question # 158

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

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Question # 159

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

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Question # 160

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Question # 161

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Question # 162

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

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Question # 163

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

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Question # 164

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

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Question # 165

The diagram below is an example of a:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Question # 166

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

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Question # 167

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Question # 168

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

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Question # 169

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Question # 170

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

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Question # 171

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Question # 172

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

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Question # 173

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

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Question # 174

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

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Question # 175

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Question # 176

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 177

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

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Question # 178

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

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Question # 179

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Question # 180

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

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Question # 181

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

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Question # 182

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

A.

Estimating

B.

Scheduling

C.

Controlling

D.

Communicating

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Question # 183

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

A.

appetite

B.

tolerance

C.

threshold

D.

management

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Question # 184

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

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Question # 185

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

A.

project records

B.

project reports

C.

stakeholder notifications

D.

stakeholder register

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Question # 186

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

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Question # 187

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

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Question # 188

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

A.

4

B.

5

C.

10

D.

11

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Question # 189

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

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Question # 190

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

A.

cultural differences of team members

B.

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.

costs associated with travel

D.

costs associated with technology

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Question # 191

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Validated changes.

C.

The change log.

D.

The requirements traceability matrix.

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Question # 192

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 193

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

A.

Accuracy

B.

Precision

C.

Grade

D.

Quality

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Question # 194

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

A.

performance measurement criteria

B.

source selection criteria

C.

product acceptance criteria

D.

phase exit criteria

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Question # 195

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Question # 196

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

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Question # 197

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Question # 198

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

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Question # 199

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

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Question # 200

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

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Question # 201

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Question # 202

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Question # 203

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A.

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

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Question # 204

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

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Question # 205

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Question # 206

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

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Question # 207

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Question # 208

An organizational structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques is referred to as:

A.

Project Management Information System

B.

Project Management System

C.

Project Management Office

D.

Project Management Knowledge Area

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Question # 209

Which statement about identification and engagement of stakeholders during a project is correct?

A.

Project stakeholders should be Identified and engaged in every phase of the project to influence the success of the project directly.

B.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged once the prototype is completed to provide their feedback but refrain from making inputs during the project.

C.

Project stakeholders should be identified when the project chatter is being completed and engaged during requirements gathering.

D.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged during requirements elicitation but not during the Define Scope process.

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Question # 210

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Question # 211

How can a project manager evaluate project team development?

A.

Produce team performance assessments.

B.

Hold weekly meetings to engage every member

C.

Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member

D.

Provide recognition awards to team members

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Question # 212

Which is the correct hierarchy in a project environment, from most to least Inclusive?

A.

Projects, portfolios, then programs

B.

Portfolios, programs, then projects

C.

Portfolios, projects, then programs

D.

Projects, programs, then portfolios

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Question # 213

It you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?

A.

Accepting

B.

Transferring

C.

Avoiding

D.

Mitigating

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Question # 214

A project manager is identifying the risks of a project. Which technique should the project manager use?

A.

Representations of uncertainty

B.

Prompt lists

C.

Audits

D.

Risk categorization

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Question # 215

A project manager is working on an estimate. The project team is estimating each work package and then finding the total of all the work packages.

Which technique is the project manager using?

A.

Three-point estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Data analysis

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Question # 216

Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?

A.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Collect Requirements. Define Scope. Create WBS. Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS

D.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Costs. Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and keep budget under control

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Question # 217

A project manager has just completed several brainstorming sessions and has gathered the data to show commonality and differences in one single place. What technique was followed?

A.

Collective decision making

B.

Multicriteria decision analysis

C.

Mind mapping

D.

Affinity diagram

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Question # 218

A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase. What is the project manager's key responsibility during this phase?

A.

Defining the scope of the project

B.

Building a collaborative environment

C.

Creating a detailed project management plan

D.

Directing the delivery of the project

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Question # 219

During the planning phase, a project manager must create a work breakdown structure (WBS) to improve management of the project's components. What should be included in the WBS?

A.

Activity dependencies

B.

Work package risks

C.

Description of work

D.

Resource estimates

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Question # 220

Which statement summarizes the role of the change control board?

A.

The change control board is responsible for presenting the change for approval.

B.

The change control board will analyze the change impact in terms of cost and schedule.

C.

The change control board is responsible for managing the change management and configuration management systems.

D.

The change control board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the project.

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Question # 221

A project has an estimated duration of 10 months with a total budget of US$220,000. At the end of the fifth month, it is estimated that at completion, the project will incur US$250,000. If the actual cost (AC) calculated is US$150,000, what is the earned value (EV) of the project?

A.

USS-30,000

B.

US$120,000

C.

US$370,000

D.

US$400,000

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Question # 222

How is the Project Scope Management process different in agile and adaptive projects then in traditional projects?

A.

Less time spent on defining scope early on

B.

More time spent on defining scope early on

C.

Less time spent on scope management process

D.

Project scope management is the same in all projects

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Question # 223

A project stakeholder is requesting changes to the project plan. Which process group addresses this?

A.

Initiating Process Group

B.

Planning Process Group

C.

Executing Process Group

D.

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

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Question # 224

Which of the following are components of the technical project management skill?

A.

Ability to explain business aspects of the project, business strategy, goals and objectives, and business value.

B.

Ability to deal with people, to be collaborative, and to apply persuasion and negotiation.

C.

Ability to focus on relationships with people, inspire trust, and implement decisions and actions that support the business strategy.

D.

Ability to plan and prioritize, gather the right artifacts available for each project, and focus on critical success factors.

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Question # 225

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

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Question # 226

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

A.

Project scope

B.

Product scope

C.

Change request

D.

Acceptance criteria

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Question # 227

What is one of the main purposes of the project charter?

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definilion of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

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Question # 228

Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?

A.

Training and establishing ground rules

B.

Networking activities and estimating team resources

C.

Conflict management activities and tracking team performance

D.

Recruit new team members and training

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Question # 229

A project manager is creating a project charter to provide a direct link between the project and the organization's strategic objectives. What must be considered when creating this document?

A.

High-level requirements and the project team

B.

Key stakeholder list and contingency reserve

C.

Detailed milestone schedule and project objectives

D.

Project purpose and high-level project description

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Question # 230

In agile projects while performing scope management. What is the definition of requirements

A.

Metrics

B.

Sprint

C.

Charter

D.

Backlog i

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Question # 231

In the Control Quality process, which tools and techniques techniques can be applied to verify deliverable?

A.

Statistical sampling, inspection, and meetings

B.

Lessons learned register, control charts, and product evaluation

C.

Checklists, retrospective documents, and approved change requests

D.

Black box tests, questionnaires and surveys, and lessons learned register

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Question # 232

Which enterprise environmental factors should be considered when creating a new procurement contract?

A.

Supply chains

B.

Trial engagements

C.

Lessons learned register

D.

Local laws and regulalk

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Question # 233

What document gathers all of the lessons learned at the end of a phase or project

A.

Lessons learned register

B.

Lessons learned list

C.

Lessons learned project asset

D.

Lessons learned repository

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Question # 234

Which of the in an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager?

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

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Question # 235

A project team member identifies a possibility......the team member's idea?

A project team member identifies a possibility of increasing project performance by adopting an innovative approach to a proposed solution. This also will save resources for the company and increase stakeholder satisfaction.

How should the project manager evaluate the team member's idea?

A.

Treat the idea using risk management processes, to handle it in a controlled and managed way.

B.

Perform an experiment simulation to confirm idea results, to make sure the cost to implement is worthwhile.

C.

Do a feasibility analysis study to confirm if an investment to explore a solution will add value.

D.

Submit the idea as a change request to the change control board to ensure that all interests are met.

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Question # 236

What behavior refers to leadership style?

A.

Do things right.

B.

Do the right things

C.

Ask how and when.

D.

Rely on control

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Question # 237

Which of the following is example of communication tools and techniques?

A.

Conflict management

B.

Stakeholder mapping

C.

Advertising plan

D.

Developing team

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Question # 238

Which sentence summarizes the salience model?

A.

Classifies stakeholders based on assessment ol Iheir power, urgency and legitimacy

B.

A chart in which the Stakeholders are ropiosented as dots according to then level ol power and influence

C.

A three-dimensional model that ran be useful to engage the stakeholder community

D.

Classifies stakeholders and the project toam by the impact of their work in the project

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Question # 239

In a preliminary meeting for a project, team members decide to execute the project with methodology A finance team member wants to know how project cost will be determined at this early stage. How will the project team determine project cost?

A.

Use a lightweight cost estimation due to the nature of angile projects.

B.

Use a detailed cost estimation for agile projects.

C.

Retrieve a dudget from a previous project and create a baseline of this project based on it.

D.

Use a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS) to get cost estimation.

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Question # 240

Which component of the project management plan should be updated if a change occurs?

A.

Project charter

B.

Project baseline

C.

Assumption log

D.

Schedule forecast

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Question # 241

A construction project is underway, and during... tasks impacted the painting work

A construction project is underway, and during the progress review the painter complained that the task could not be started because the mason has not finished the plastering job What kind ot relationship between the tasks impacted the painting work?

A.

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

B.

Start-to-Finish (SF)

C.

Finish-to-Start(FS)

D.

Start-to-Slart(SS)

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Question # 242

Which of the following tasks is related to the perform qualitative risk analysis process?

A.

Identify the project risks and assign a probability of occurrence

B.

Perform a sensitivity analysis to determine which risk has the most potential for impacting the project

C.

Analyze the effect of identified project risks as numerical data

D.

Prioritize each project risk and assign the probability of occurrence and impact for each one

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Question # 243

The project team is inspecting the completed project scope to determine if the requirements have been satisfied. What is the result of this inspection?

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

planning packages

C.

Verified deliverables

D.

Work packages

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Question # 244

Match the method for categorizing stakeholders with its corresponding description

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Question # 245

A project team is brainstorming about the best methods and practices to adopt for an upcoming project. What is the project team trying to follow?

A.

Programs

B.

Portfolios

C.

Concepts

D.

Standards

Full Access
Question # 246

During the project life cycle for a major product, a stakeholder asked to add a new feature. Which document should they consult for guidance?

A.

Product release plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Project release plan

D.

Product management plan

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Question # 247

The project manager and project team are developing approximations of the cost of resources needed to complete the project work. On which process are they working?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 248

A project manager is working on the communications management plan. Which of these documents are inputs to consider?

A.

Stakeholder engagement plan and organizational process assets

B.

Project schedule and stakeholder register

C.

Quality management plan and risk register

D.

Basis of estimates and scope baseline

Full Access
Question # 249

An executive sponsor wants to be briefed on how the product will change over time. Which document should the business analyst use to prepare their presentation?

A.

Project charter

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product requirements

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Question # 250

In an interactive communication model, how is the sender ensured that the message was understood by the receiver?

A.

The receiver decodes the message

B.

The receiver responds to the message with feedback.

C.

The receiver transmits the message

D.

The receiver acknowledges their receipt of the message

Full Access
Question # 251

How can a project manager ensure effective project stakeholder engagement?

A.

Build a stakeholder responsibility matrix

B.

Hold weekly project staff meetings

C.

Improve interpersonal and team leadership skills

D.

Create detailed project reports for stakeholders

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Question # 252

Which process uses expert judgment to manage project resources?

A.

Plan Resource Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Manage Team

D.

Both A and B

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Question # 253

A project manager is working with the project sponsor to identify the resources required for the project. They use a RACI chart to ensure that the team members know their roles and responsibilities. What are the four elements of a RACI chart?

A.

Recommend, accountable, consult, and inform

B.

Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform

C.

Recommend, approve, coordinate, and inform

D.

Responsible, accountable, coordinate, and inform

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Question # 254

In a demonstration meeting with a customer, the project team presented deliverables that were considered ready for customer use. The team based the results on a checklist of all the required criteria for the project. Which of the following elements is the team using?

A.

Burndown chart

B.

Definition of done (DoD)

C.

Backlog refinement

D.

Definition of ready (DoR)

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Question # 255

Which is an example of an internal enterprise environmental factor?

A.

Market Share brand recognition

B.

Factory location

C.

Local government regulation

D.

Industry research

Full Access
Question # 256

Development of the benefits management plan occurs in which stage of the project life cycle?

A.

Starting the project

B.

Organizing the project

C.

Completing pre-project work

D.

Executing the product

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Question # 257

Which of the following factors within a company cloud trigger the creation of a project?

A.

Need to lower production costs to remain competitive

B.

Need to submit a warranty claim for a faulty product

C.

Need to submit the monthly production report

D.

Need to define next month's production goals

Full Access
Question # 258

Which of the following is part of the project sponsor's responsibility?

A.

Monitoring the business value

B.

Auditing the business value

C.

Tracking the business value

D.

Advocating the business value

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Question # 259

A project manager is managing a small project that has a time constraint. What should the project manager do to ensure the delivery is on time?

A.

Schedule the tasks in sequence.

B.

Increase quality review cycles.

C.

Expand the scope of the project.

D.

Schedule the tasks in parallel.

Full Access
Question # 260

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?

A.

Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and ream skills

B.

Data analysis, audits, and decision making

C.

Expert judgement, audits, and decision making

D.

Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment

Full Access
Question # 261

Product requirements specify a functionality that depends upon expertise that is unavailable internally. What process should be implemented to generate a make-or-buy decision?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B Plan Procurement Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

Full Access
Question # 262

Agile release planning provides a high-level summary timeline of the release schedule based on.

A.

Activities and story points

B.

Iteration and prioritization plans

C.

Product roadmap and the product vision

D.

Tasks and user stories

Full Access
Question # 263

During the project planning process, which three of the following stakeholders are required to take part in the risk assessment meeting? (Choose three)

A.

End user

B.

Product owner

C.

Subject matter experts (SMEs)

D.

Project sponsor

E.

Project team

Full Access
Question # 264

A business manager wants to start a project to launch a new product and submits a business case to the Portfolio Steering Committee for review. The committee asks the manager for details about the expectedbusiness value of the project. How can the manager document the business value for the Portfolio Steering Committee?

A.

Execute a market study for similar products and demonstrate a market need.

B.

Create a presentation outlining the business benefits of the new product.

C.

Prepare a benefits management plan to capture target benefits and strategic alignment.

D.

Conduct a feasibility study to determine the business impact of the new product.

Full Access
Question # 265

A program consists of four agile teams. Each team has a separate daily standup. Later each day, there is another standup meeting attended by one member from each team.

Which Scrum technique is this?

A.

Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe®)

B.

Disciplined Agile® (DA™)

C.

Large Scale Scrum (LeSS)

D.

Scrum of Scrums

Full Access
Question # 266

An adaptive team is in the process of merging a legacy system from an acquired company. In order to check the project status and manage the flow of work, they are using a scrum board for this project. What data should be included in this information radiator?

A.

Product and sprint backlog

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) and baseline

C.

Increments and bottlenecks

D.

Burndown and burnup charts

Full Access
Question # 267

A project manager is in the process of onboarding resources to start work on a project. Which of the following components of a project management plan will the project manager update after completing this activity?

A.

Resource management plan and lessons learned register

B.

Resource management plan and cost baseline

C.

Resource management plan and procurement management plan

D.

Resource management plan and preassignment

Full Access
Question # 268

A project team is evaluating criteria to determine project viability. Which of these activities will provide insight into making a go/no-go decision to start the project?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Cost of quality (COQ)

D.

Lessons learned

Full Access
Question # 269

A project receives budget approval, but the risk of extra costs is expected. Which of these inputs should the project manager check in order to make a qualitative risk analysis?

A.

The risk management plan and the assumption log

B.

Costs estimates and cost forecast

C.

The risk management plan and the basis of estimates

D.

The assumption log and the project charter

Full Access
Question # 270

In the project charter process, which three of the following are discussed during meetings held with stakeholders? (Choose three) D Cost

A.

High-level deliverables

B.

Success criteria

C.

Project objectives

D.

Phase transitions

Full Access
Question # 271

What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?

A.

Cultural influences

B.

Physical environmental elements

C.

Commercial databases

D.

Infrastructure

Full Access
Question # 272

An adaptive team's velocity dropped significantly in the last sprint due to the planned vacation of two team members. The project sponsor wants to know how many more sprints it would take to complete the remaining project.

How should the project manager calculate the anticipated velocity for future sprints?

A.

Add a 30% buffer to the velocity to calculate future velocity.

B.

Calculate the average of the past five sprints to predict future velocity.

C.

Change the adaptive tool that the team is using to calculate velocity.

D.

Use the velocity of the last sprint, as it is the most recent one to share.

Full Access
Question # 273

What purpose does the hierarchical focus of stakeholder communications serve?

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the focus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

Full Access
Question # 274

A business case is being assembled. Which two elements are necessary to complete this process? (Choose two)

A.

Project management plan

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Business goals and objectives

E.

Risk register

Full Access
Question # 275

What is the primary purpose of Project Scope Management?

A.

Determining and managing stakeholder needs

B.

Contorting the status of the product scope and managing changes to its be seine

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project

D.

Differentiating between the product scope and project scope

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Question # 276

Which can be used to convert a verified deliverable to an accepted deliverable?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Reporting

C.

Voting

D.

Brainstorming

Full Access
Question # 277

Select three processes that are associated with Project Schedule Management.

A.

Define Activities

B.

Plan Resource Management

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

E.

Acquire Resources

Full Access
Question # 278

After an internal deliverable review session with the team, the project manager indicates some issues that need to be fixed before submitting the deliverable for formal approval. The project manager will need to manage the additional costs and the required network. How would the project manager define extra costs?

A.

Appraisal costs

B.

Management reserves

C.

Cost of nonconformance

D.

Cost of conformance

Full Access
Question # 279

Which behavior is a management trait?

A.

Asking what and why

B.

Challenging the status quo

C.

Innovating

D.

Relying on control

Full Access
Question # 280

When can we say that a project is completed?

A.

When the planned time duration is completed

B.

When the project objectives have been reached

C.

When the project manager has left the team

D.

When the project team decides to stop the work on the project

Full Access
Question # 281

Which three of the following interpersonal skills does a project manager rely on when developing the project management plan? (Choose three)

A.

Interviews

B.

Facilitation

C.

Conflict management

D.

Focus groups

E.

Meeting management

Full Access
Question # 282

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use when estimating costs?

A.

Lessons learned register and cost aggregation

B.

Project schedule and resources requirements

C.

Three-point estimating and risk register

D.

Expert judgempnt and decision making

Full Access
Question # 283

An organization's project management office (PMO) has issued guidelines that require a specific template to be used for onboarding resources for a project. Where can the project manager find this template?

A.

Resources management plan

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Procurement management plan

D.

Organizational systems access

Full Access
Question # 284

An adaptive project manager is migrating the company's new website. The project manager must work with the team to invest full capacity on this project because it is the company's top-ranked project in the portfolio. In order to increase throughput and provide consistent delivery, the project manager needs to assign members who are currently involved with other projects.

How should the project manager assign the team members to this project?

A.

Task switching

B.

Multitasking

C.

Prediction

D.

Full allocation

Full Access
Question # 285

A project team is meeting to seek solutions on a new problem that occurred recently. The meeting is comprised of two parts: the first is a generation of ideas and the second is an analysis. Which technique is the team using?

A.

Checklists

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Focus group

D.

Interview

Full Access
Question # 286

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

Full Access
Question # 287

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

Full Access
Question # 288

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

Full Access
Question # 289

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

Full Access
Question # 290

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

Full Access
Question # 291

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

Full Access
Question # 292

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

Full Access
Question # 293

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

Full Access
Question # 294

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Full Access
Question # 295

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

A.

Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.

B.

Conduct risk management activities for a project.

C.

Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.

D.

Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.

Full Access
Question # 296

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Full Access
Question # 297

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

Full Access
Question # 298

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

A.

Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

B.

Historical information and the stakeholder register.

C.

Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.

D.

Project documents and historical information.

Full Access
Question # 299

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

A.

Budget plan

B.

Resource plan

C.

Scope plan

D.

Strategic plan

Full Access
Question # 300

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Full Access
Question # 301

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

Full Access
Question # 302

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Network diagrams

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Full Access
Question # 303

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

Full Access
Question # 304

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

Full Access
Question # 305

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

Full Access
Question # 306

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

Full Access
Question # 307

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

Full Access
Question # 308

When is a project finished?

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

Full Access
Question # 309

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Project management processes

D.

Project scope management plan

Full Access
Question # 310

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Full Access
Question # 311

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

Full Access
Question # 312

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Procurement statement of work

Full Access
Question # 313

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

Full Access
Question # 314

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

Full Access
Question # 315

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

Full Access
Question # 316

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

Full Access
Question # 317

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Full Access
Question # 318

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

Full Access
Question # 319

What is the total float of the critical path?

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

Full Access
Question # 320

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

Full Access
Question # 321

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

Full Access
Question # 322

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

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Question # 323

Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

A.

Coaching

B.

Avoidance

C.

Consensus

D.

Influencing

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Question # 324

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

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Question # 325

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

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Question # 326

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

A.

Scope

B.

Quality

C.

Specification

D.

Grade

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Question # 327

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 328

The product scope description is used to:

A.

Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B.

Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.

C.

Describe the project in great detail.

D.

Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.

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Question # 329

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

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Question # 330

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

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Question # 331

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

A.

Market conditions and published commercial information

B.

Company structure and market conditions

C.

Commercial information and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market conditions

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Question # 332

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

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Question # 333

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

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Question # 334

Portfolio Management is management of:

A.

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

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Question # 335

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Question # 336

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

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Question # 337

Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Bottom-up estimating

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Question # 338

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 339

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

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Question # 340

Most experienced project managers know that:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

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Question # 341

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

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Question # 342

Organizations perceive risks as:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

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Question # 343

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Question # 344

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

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Question # 345

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

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Question # 346

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

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Question # 347

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 348

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

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Question # 349

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

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Question # 350

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

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Question # 351

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

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Question # 352

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Question # 353

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

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Question # 354

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

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Question # 355

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 356

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

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Question # 357

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

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Question # 358

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Question # 359

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A.

Control

B.

Bar

C.

Flow

D.

Pareto

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Question # 360

Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Resource calendars

C.

Procurement document

D.

Independent estimates

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Question # 361

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 362

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

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Question # 363

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

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Question # 364

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Question # 365

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

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Question # 366

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Updated project charter

C.

Approved change request

D.

Multicriteria decision analysis

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Question # 367

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

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Question # 368

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

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Question # 369

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

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Question # 370

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

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Question # 371

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

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Question # 372

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

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Question # 373

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

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Question # 374

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Question # 375

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Requesting seller responses

C.

Selecting seller's

D.

Planning purchase and acquisition

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Question # 376

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

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Question # 377

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

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Question # 378

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

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Question # 379

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

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Question # 380

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 381

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

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Question # 382

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 383

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Question # 384

Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A.

Cyclic

B.

Progressive

C.

Repetitive

D.

Iterative

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Question # 385

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Question # 386

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 387

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Monitor and Control Risk

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 388

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

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Question # 389

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Question # 390

The definition of operations is a/an:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

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Question # 391

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Question # 392

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

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Question # 393

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

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Question # 394

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

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Question # 395

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Question # 396

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

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Question # 397

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:

A.

quality audits.

B.

process analysis.

C.

benchmarking.

D.

inspection.

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Question # 398

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

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Question # 399

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

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