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Question # 4

Which Cisco platform ensures that machines that connect to organizational networks have the recommended

antivirus definitions and patches to help prevent an organizational malware outbreak?

A.

Cisco WiSM

B.

Cisco ESA

C.

Cisco ISE

D.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

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Question # 5

Email security has become a high-priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10.00 to -6.00) on the Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

A.

FilterAction

B.

ScreenAction

C.

Quarantine

D.

Defang

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Question # 6

Drag and drop the cryptographic algorithms for IPsec from the left onto the cryptographic processes on the right.

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Question # 7

An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration.

The engineer also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to

use 802.1X, MAB, or WebAuth. Which product meets all of these requirements?

A.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

B.

Cisco Identity Services Engine

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch

D.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

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Question # 8

What are two DDoS attack categories? (Choose two)

A.

sequential

B.

protocol

C.

database

D.

volume-based

E.

screen-based

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Question # 9

What is a function of Cisco AMP for Endpoints?

A.

It detects DNS attacks

B.

It protects against web-based attacks

C.

It blocks email-based attacks

D.

It automates threat responses of an infected host

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Question # 10

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is adding a new Cisco FTD device to their network and wants to manage it with Cisco FMC.

The Cisco FTD is not behind a NAT device. Which command is needed to enable this on the Cisco FTD?

A.

configure manager add DONTRESOLVE kregistration key>

B.

configure manager add 16

C.

configure manager add DONTRESOLVE FTD123

D.

configure manager add

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Question # 11

What is the most commonly used protocol for network telemetry?

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TFTP

D.

NctFlow

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Question # 12

Which Cisco AMP feature allows an engineer to look back to trace past activities, such as file and process

activity on an endpoint?

A.

endpoint isolation

B.

advanced search

C.

advanced investigation

D.

retrospective security

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Question # 13

When a Cisco WSA checks a web request, what occurs if it is unable to match a user-defined policy?

A.

It blocks the request.

B.

It applies the global policy.

C.

It applies the next identification profile policy.

D.

It applies the advanced policy.

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Question # 14

An engineer is configuring Dropbox integration with Cisco Cloudlock. Which action must be taken before granting API access in the Dropbox admin console?

A.

Authorize Dropbox within the Platform settings in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

B.

Add Dropbox to the Cisco Cloudlock Authentication and API section in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

C.

Send an API request to Cisco Cloudlock from Dropbox admin portal.

D.

Add Cisco Cloudlock to the Dropbox admin portal.

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Question # 15

An organization has a Cisco ESA set up with policies and would like to customize the action assigned for

violations. The organization wants a copy of the message to be delivered with a message added to flag it as a

DLP violation. Which actions must be performed in order to provide this capability?

A.

deliver and send copies to other recipients

B.

quarantine and send a DLP violation notification

C.

quarantine and alter the subject header with a DLP violation

D.

deliver and add disclaimer text

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Question # 16

Which Cisco DNA Center Intent API action is used to retrieve the number of devices known to a DNA Center?

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Question # 17

Which kind of API that is used with Cisco DNA Center provisions SSIDs, QoS policies, and update software versions on switches?

A.

Integration

B.

Intent

C.

Event

D.

Multivendor

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Question # 18

What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

A.

to register new laptops and mobile devices

B.

to request a newly provisioned mobile device

C.

to provision userless and agentless systems

D.

to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end user

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Question # 19

What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

A.

Mail Submission Agent

B.

Mail Transfer Agent

C.

Mail Delivery Agent

D.

Mail User Agent

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Question # 20

An engineer is configuring cloud logging using a company-managed Amazon S3 bucket for Cisco Umbrella logs. What benefit does this configuration provide for accessing log data?

A.

It is included m the license cost for the multi-org console of Cisco Umbrella

B.

It can grant third-party SIEM integrations write access to the S3 bucket

C.

No other applications except Cisco Umbrella can write to the S3 bucket

D.

Data can be stored offline for 30 days.

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Question # 21

Which parameter is required when configuring a Netflow exporter on a Cisco Router?

A.

DSCP value

B.

Source interface

C.

Exporter name

D.

Exporter description

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Question # 22

Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP/TCP flags, and payload length?

A.

interpacket variation

B.

software package variation

C.

flow insight variation

D.

process details variation

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Question # 23

Which Secure Email Gateway implementation method segregates inbound and outbound email?

A.

Pair of logical listeners on a single physical interface with two unique logical IPv4 addresses and one IPv6 address

B.

One listener on one logical IPv4 address on a single logical interface

C.

Pair of logical IPv4 listeners and a pair of IPv6 listeners on two physically separate interfaces

D.

One listener on a single physical interface

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Question # 24

Which solution allows an administrator to provision, monitor, and secure mobile devices on Windows and Mac computers from a centralized dashboard?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

C.

Cisco ISE

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

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Question # 25

A security test performed on one of the applications shows that user input is not validated. Which security vulnerability is the application more susceptible to because of this lack of validation?

A.

denial -of-service

B.

cross-site request forgery

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

SQL injection

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Question # 26

An engineer enabled SSL decryption for Cisco Umbrella intelligent proxy and needs to ensure that traffic is inspected without alerting end-users. Which action accomplishes this goal?

A.

Restrict access to only websites with trusted third-party signed certificates.

B.

Modify the user’s browser settings to suppress errors from Cisco Umbrella.

C.

Upload the organization root CA to Cisco Umbrella.

D.

Install the Cisco Umbrella root CA onto the user’s device.

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Question # 27

A customer has various external HTTP resources available including Intranet. Extranet, and Internet, with a proxy configuration running in explicit mode Which method allows the client desktop browsers to be configured to select when to connect direct or when to use the proxy?

A.

Transparent mode

B.

Forward file

C.

PAC file

D.

Bridge mode

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Question # 28

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco DNA center? (Choose two)

A.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

B.

Third party reporting

C.

Connect to ITSM platforms

D.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

E.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

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Question # 29

An engineer has enabled LDAP accept queries on a listener. Malicious actors must be prevented from quickly

identifying all valid recipients. What must be done on the Cisco ESA to accomplish this goal?

A.

Configure incoming content filters

B.

Use Bounce Verification

C.

Configure Directory Harvest Attack Prevention

D.

Bypass LDAP access queries in the recipient access table

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Question # 30

A Cisco FTD engineer is creating a new IKEv2 policy called s2s00123456789 for their organization to allow for additional protocols to terminate network devices with. They currently only have one policy established and need the new policy to be a backup in case some devices cannot support the stronger algorithms listed in the primary policy. What should be done in order to support this?

A.

Change the integrity algorithms to SHA* to support all SHA algorithms in the primary policy

B.

Make the priority for the new policy 5 and the primary policy 1

C.

Change the encryption to AES* to support all AES algorithms in the primary policy

D.

Make the priority for the primary policy 10 and the new policy 1

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Question # 31

An engineer is configuring guest WLAN access using Cisco ISE and the Cisco WLC. Which action temporarily gives guest endpoints access dynamically while maintaining visibility into who or what is connecting?

A.

Modify the WLC configuration to require local WLC logins for the authentication prompts.

B.

Configure ISE and the WLC for guest redirection and services using a self-registered portal.

C.

Configure ISE and the WLC for guest redirection and services using a hotspot portal.

D.

Modify the WLC configuration to allow any endpoint to access an internet-only VLAN.

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Question # 32

When NetFlow is applied to an interface, which component creates the flow monitor cache that is used

to collect traffic based on the key and nonkey fields in the configured record?

A.

records

B.

flow exporter

C.

flow sampler

D.

flow monitor

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Question # 33

Drag and drop the deployment models from the left onto the explanations on the right.

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Question # 34

Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.

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Question # 35

An engineer is implementing DHCP security mechanisms and needs the ability to add additional attributes to profiles that are created within Cisco ISE Which action accomplishes this task?

A.

Define MAC-to-lP address mappings in the switch to ensure that rogue devices cannot get an IP address

B.

Use DHCP option 82 to ensure that the request is from a legitimate endpoint and send the information to Cisco ISE

C.

Modify the DHCP relay and point the IP address to Cisco ISE.

D.

Configure DHCP snooping on the switch VLANs and trust the necessary interfaces

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Question # 36

Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize

applications, collect and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?

A.

Cisco Security Intelligence

B.

Cisco Application Visibility and Control

C.

Cisco Model Driven Telemetry

D.

Cisco DNA Center

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Question # 37

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco ESA?

A.

webadvancedconfig

B.

websecurity advancedconfig

C.

outbreakconfig

D.

websecurity config

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Question # 38

Why is it important to have a patching strategy for endpoints?

A.

to take advantage of new features released with patches

B.

so that functionality is increased on a faster scale when it is used

C.

so that known vulnerabilities are targeted and having a regular patch cycle reduces risks

D.

so that patching strategies can assist with disabling nonsecure protocols in applications

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Question # 39

Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?

A.

AMP

B.

AnyConnect

C.

DynDNS

D.

Talos

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Question # 40

Which benefit is provided by ensuring that an endpoint is compliant with a posture policy configured in Cisco ISE?

A.

It allows the endpoint to authenticate with 802.1x or MAB.

B.

It verifies that the endpoint has the latest Microsoft security patches installed.

C.

It adds endpoints to identity groups dynamically.

D.

It allows CoA to be applied if the endpoint status is compliant.

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Question # 41

A Cisco ISE engineer configures Central Web Authentication (CWA) for wireless guest access and must have the guest endpoints redirect to the guest portal for authentication and authorization. While testing the policy, the engineer notices that the device is not redirected and instead gets full guest access. What must be done for the redirect to work?

A.

Tag the guest portal in the CWA part of the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

B.

Use the track movement option within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

C.

Create an advanced attribute setting of Cisco:cisco-gateway-id=guest within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

D.

Add the DACL name for the Airespace ACL configured on the WLC in the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

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Question # 42

Which statement describes a traffic profile on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

A.

It allows traffic if it does not meet the profile.

B.

It defines a traffic baseline for traffic anomaly deduction.

C.

It inspects hosts that meet the profile with more intrusion rules.

D.

It blocks traffic if it does not meet the profile.

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Question # 43

Which two are valid suppression types on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two)

A.

Port

B.

Rule

C.

Source

D.

Application

E.

Protocol

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Question # 44

Which direction do attackers encode data in DNS requests during exfiltration using DNS tunneling?

A.

inbound

B.

north-south

C.

east-west

D.

outbound

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Question # 45

What is the purpose of CA in a PKI?

A.

To issue and revoke digital certificates

B.

To validate the authenticity of a digital certificate

C.

To create the private key for a digital certificate

D.

To certify the ownership of a public key by the named subject

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Question # 46

An engineer needs behavioral analysis to detect malicious activity on the hosts, and is configuring the

organization’s public cloud to send telemetry using the cloud provider’s mechanisms to a security device. Which

mechanism should the engineer configure to accomplish this goal?

A.

mirror port

B.

Flow

C.

NetFlow

D.

VPC flow logs

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Question # 47

Which Cisco AMP feature allows an engineer to look back to trace past activities, such as file and process activity on an endpoint?

A.

Retrospective security

B.

Endpoint isolation

C.

Advanced investigation

D.

Advanced search

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Question # 48

Which standard is used to automate exchanging cyber threat information?

A.

TAXII

B.

MITRE

C.

IoC

D.

STIX

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Question # 49

Why should organizations migrate to an MFA strategy for authentication?

A.

Single methods of authentication can be compromised more easily than MFA.

B.

Biometrics authentication leads to the need for MFA due to its ability to be hacked easily.

C.

MFA methods of authentication are never compromised.

D.

MFA does not require any piece of evidence for an authentication mechanism.

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Question # 50

A malicious user gained network access by spoofing printer connections that were authorized using MAB on

four different switch ports at the same time. What two catalyst switch security features will prevent further

violations? (Choose two)

A.

DHCP Snooping

B.

802.1AE MacSec

C.

Port security

D.

IP Device track

E.

Dynamic ARP inspection

F.

Private VLANs

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Question # 51

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A.

TACACS+

B.

CHAP

C.

NTLMSSP

D.

RADIUS

E.

Kerberos

Full Access
Question # 52

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are

authenticating with dot1x or mab?

A.

show authentication registrations

B.

show authentication method

C.

show dot1x all

D.

show authentication sessions

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Question # 53

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must enable secure SSH protocols and enters this configuration. What are two results of running this set of commands on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

A.

Labels the key pair to be used for SSH

B.

Uses the FQDN with the label command

C.

Generates AES key pairs on the router

D.

Generates RSA key pair on the router

E.

Enables SSHv1 on the router

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Question # 54

Drag and drop the Cisco CWS redirection options from the left onto the capabilities on the right.

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Question # 55

Which two tasks allow NetFlow on a Cisco ASA 5500 Series firewall? (Choose two)

A.

Enable NetFlow Version 9.

B.

Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.

C.

Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction.

D.

Create a class map to match interesting traffic.

E.

Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command

Full Access
Question # 56

An administrator is adding a new Cisco ISE node to an existing deployment. What must be done to ensure that the addition of the node will be successful when inputting the FQDN?

A.

Change the IP address of the new Cisco ISE node to the same network as the others.

B.

Make the new Cisco ISE node a secondary PAN before registering it with the primary.

C.

Open port 8905 on the firewall between the Cisco ISE nodes

D.

Add the DNS entry for the new Cisco ISE node into the DNS server

Full Access
Question # 57

Which feature enables a Cisco ISR to use the default bypass list automatically for web filtering?

A.

filters

B.

group key

C.

company key

D.

connector

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Question # 58

A network security engineer must export packet captures from the Cisco FMC web browser while troubleshooting an issue. When navigating to the address https:// /capure/CAPI/pcap/test.pcap, an error 403: Forbidden is given instead of the PCAP file. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A.

Disable the proxy setting on the browser

B.

Disable the HTTPS server and use HTTP instead

C.

Use the Cisco FTD IP address as the proxy server setting on the browser

D.

Enable the HTTPS server for the device platform policy

Full Access
Question # 59

What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two)

A.

blocked ports

B.

simple custom detections

C.

command and control

D.

allowed applications

E.

URL

Full Access
Question # 60

Which technology should be used to help prevent an attacker from stealing usernames and passwords of users within an organization?

A.

RADIUS-based REAP

B.

fingerprinting

C.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

D.

multifactor authentication

Full Access
Question # 61

Why should organizations migrate to a multifactor authentication strategy?

A.

Multifactor authentication methods of authentication are never compromised

B.

Biometrics authentication leads to the need for multifactor authentication due to its ability to be hacked easily

C.

Multifactor authentication does not require any piece of evidence for an authentication mechanism

D.

Single methods of authentication can be compromised more easily than multifactor authentication

Full Access
Question # 62

Which Cisco DNA Center RESTful PNP API adds and claims a device into a workflow?

A.

api/v1/fie/config

B.

api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device/import

C.

api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device

D.

api/v1/onboarding/workflow

Full Access
Question # 63

On Cisco Firepower Management Center, which policy is used to collect health modules alerts from managed

devices?

A.

health policy

B.

system policy

C.

correlation policy

D.

access control policy

E.

health awareness policy

Full Access
Question # 64

An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the

endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE. Which CoA type achieves this goal?

A.

Port Bounce

B.

CoA Terminate

C.

CoA Reauth

D.

CoA Session Query

Full Access
Question # 65

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true?

A.

The authentication request contains only a password

B.

The authentication request contains only a username

C.

The authentication and authorization requests are grouped in a single packet

D.

There are separate authentication and authorization request packets

Full Access
Question # 66

Which Cisco Advanced Malware protection for Endpoints deployment architecture is designed to keep data

within a network perimeter?

A.

cloud web services

B.

network AMP

C.

private cloud

D.

public cloud

Full Access
Question # 67

How is DNS tunneling used to exfiltrate data out of a corporate network?

A.

It corrupts DNS servers by replacing the actual IP address with a rogue address to collect information or start other attacks.

B.

It encodes the payload with random characters that are broken into short strings and the DNS serverrebuilds the exfiltrated data.

C.

It redirects DNS requests to a malicious server used to steal user credentials, which allows further damageand theft on the network.

D.

It leverages the DNS server by permitting recursive lookups to spread the attack to other DNS servers.

Full Access
Question # 68

Which API method and required attribute are used to add a device into Cisco DNA Center with the native API?

A.

GET and serialNumber

B.

userSudiSerlalNos and deviceInfo

C.

POST and name

D.

lastSyncTime and pid

Full Access
Question # 69

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 70

Refer to the exhibit.

When configuring a remote access VPN solution terminating on the Cisco ASA, an administrator would like to utilize an external token authentication mechanism in conjunction with AAA authentication using machine

certificates. Which configuration item must be modified to allow this?

A.

Group Policy

B.

Method

C.

SAML Server

D.

DHCP Servers

Full Access
Question # 71

Client workstations are experiencing extremely poor response time. An engineer suspects that an attacker is eavesdropping and making independent connections while relaying messages between victims to make them think they are talking to each other over a private connection. Which feature must be enabled and configured to provide relief from this type of attack?

A.

Link Aggregation

B.

Reverse ARP

C.

private VLANs

D.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

Full Access
Question # 72

Which Cisco Firewall solution requires zone definition?

A.

CBAC

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

ZBFW

D.

Cisco ASA

Full Access
Question # 73

How does a WCCP-configured router identify if the Cisco WSA is functional?

A.

If an ICMP ping fails three consecutive times between a router and the WSA, traffic is no longer transmitted to the router.

B.

If an ICMP ping fails three consecutive times between a router and the WSA, traffic is no longertransmitted to the WSA.

C.

The WSA sends a Here-l-Am message every 10 seconds, and the router acknowledges with an ISee-You message.

D.

The router sends a Here-l-Am message every 10 seconds, and the WSA acknowledges with an ISee-You message.

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Question # 74

Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

A.

dot1x system-auth-control

B.

dot1x pae authenticator

C.

authentication port-control aut

D.

aaa new-model

Full Access
Question # 75

Which IETF attribute is supported for the RADIUS CoA feature?

A.

24 State

B.

30 Calling-Station-ID

C.

42 Acct-Session-ID

D.

81 Message-Authenticator

Full Access
Question # 76

A customer has various external HTTP resources available including Intranet Extranet and Internet, with a

proxy configuration running in explicit mode. Which method allows the client desktop browsers to be configured

to select when to connect direct or when to use the proxy?

A.

Transport mode

B.

Forward file

C.

PAC file

D.

Bridge mode

Full Access
Question # 77

A Cisco ESA network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Cisco ESA is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

A.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold

C.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold

D.

The policy was created to disable file analysis

Full Access
Question # 78

A network administrator needs to find out what assets currently exist on the network. Third-party systems need to be able to feed host data into Cisco Firepower. What must be configured to accomplish this?

A.

a Network Discovery policy to receive data from the host

B.

a Threat Intelligence policy to download the data from the host

C.

a File Analysis policy to send file data into Cisco Firepower

D.

a Network Analysis policy to receive NetFlow data from the host

Full Access
Question # 79

A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface.

How does the switch behave in this situation?

A.

It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.

B.

It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.

C.

It forwards the packet without validation.

D.

It drops the packet without validation.

Full Access
Question # 80

What is a benefit of using Cisco Umbrella?

A.

DNS queries are resolved faster.

B.

Attacks can be mitigated before the application connection occurs.

C.

Files are scanned for viruses before they are allowed to run.

D.

It prevents malicious inbound traffic.

Full Access
Question # 81

Which ASA deployment mode can provide separation of management on a shared appliance?

A.

DMZ multiple zone mode

B.

transparent firewall mode

C.

multiple context mode

D.

routed mode

Full Access
Question # 82

An administrator configures new authorization policies within Cisco ISE and has difficulty profiling the devices. Attributes for the new Cisco IP phones that are profiled based on the RADIUS authentication are seen however the attributes for CDP or DHCP are not. What should the administrator do to address this issue?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the DHCP interfaces to get the information to Cisco ISE

B.

Configure the authentication port-control auto feature within Cisco ISE to identify the devices that are trying to connect

C.

Configure a service template within the switch to standardize the port configurations so that the correct information is sent to Cisco ISE

D.

Configure the device sensor feature within the switch to send the appropriate protocol information

Full Access
Question # 83

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure a Cisco switch to perform PPP authentication via a TACACS server located at IP address 10.1.1.10. Authentication must fall back to the local database using the username LocalUser and password C1Sc0451069341l if the TACACS server is unreachable.

Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the corresponding configuration steps on the right.

Full Access
Question # 84

What are two Trojan malware attacks? (Choose two)

A.

Frontdoor

B.

Rootkit

C.

Smurf

D.

Backdoor

E.

Sync

Full Access
Question # 85

II

An engineer musí set up 200 new laptops on a network and wants to prevent the users from moving their laptops around to simplify administration Which switch port MAC address security setting must be used?

A.

sticky

B.

static

C.

aging

D.

maximum

Full Access
Question # 86

What are two functions of secret key cryptography? (Choose two)

A.

key selection without integer factorization

B.

utilization of different keys for encryption and decryption

C.

utilization of large prime number iterations

D.

provides the capability to only know the key on one side

E.

utilization of less memory

Full Access
Question # 87

Which DevSecOps implementation process gives a weekly or daily update instead of monthly or quarterly in the applications?

A.

Orchestration

B.

CI/CD pipeline

C.

Container

D.

Security

Full Access
Question # 88

Why is it important to have logical security controls on endpoints even though the users are trained to spot security threats and the network devices already help prevent them?

A.

to prevent theft of the endpoints

B.

because defense-in-depth stops at the network

C.

to expose the endpoint to more threats

D.

because human error or insider threats will still exist

Full Access
Question # 89

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to display this output?

A.

show dot1x all

B.

show dot1x

C.

show dot1x all summary

D.

show dot1x interface gi1/0/12

Full Access
Question # 90

An email administrator is setting up a new Cisco ESA. The administrator wants to enable the blocking of greymail for the end user. Which feature must the administrator enable first?

A.

File Analysis

B.

IP Reputation Filtering

C.

Intelligent Multi-Scan

D.

Anti-Virus Filtering

Full Access
Question # 91

A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface. What is causing this problem?

A.

DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.

B.

The ip arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.

C.

Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs

D.

The no ip arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces

Full Access
Question # 92

An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be able to gain visibility on the applications within the network. The solution must be able to maintain and force compliance. Which product should be used to meet these requirements?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch

D.

Cisco Tetration

Full Access
Question # 93

Which feature is used in a push model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination?

A.

AAA attributes

B.

CoA request

C.

AV pair

D.

carrier-grade NAT

Full Access
Question # 94

What is managed by Cisco Security Manager?

A.

access point

B.

WSA

C.

ASA

D.

ESA

Full Access
Question # 95

Which two criteria must a certificate meet before the WSA uses it to decrypt application traffic? (Choose two.)

A.

It must include the current date.

B.

It must reside in the trusted store of the WSA.

C.

It must reside in the trusted store of the endpoint.

D.

It must have been signed by an internal CA.

E.

it must contain a SAN.

Full Access
Question # 96

Which group within Cisco writes and publishes a weekly newsletter to help cybersecurity professionals remain

aware of the ongoing and most prevalent threats?

A.

PSIRT

B.

Talos

C.

CSIRT

D.

DEVNET

Full Access
Question # 97

How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?

A.

per policy

B.

in the Reporting settings

C.

in the Security Settings section

D.

per network in the Deployments section

Full Access
Question # 98

How does Cisco Workload Optimization portion of the network do EPP solutions solely performance issues?

A.

It deploys an AWS Lambda system

B.

It automates resource resizing

C.

It optimizes a flow path

D.

It sets up a workload forensic score

Full Access
Question # 99

Which solution protects hybrid cloud deployment workloads with application visibility and segmentation?

A.

Nexus

B.

Stealthwatch

C.

Firepower

D.

Tetration

Full Access
Question # 100

Which characteristic is unique to a Cisco WSAv as compared to a physical appliance?

A.

supports VMware vMotion on VMware ESXi

B.

requires an additional license

C.

performs transparent redirection

D.

supports SSL decryption

Full Access
Question # 101

Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two)

A.

phishing

B.

brute force

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

DDOS

E.

teardrop

Full Access
Question # 102

When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and inform users of known security findings and

vulnerabilities, which name is used?

A.

Common Security Exploits

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

C.

Common Exploits and Vulnerabilities

D.

Common Vulnerabilities, Exploits and Threats

Full Access
Question # 103

Which type of protection encrypts RSA keys when they are exported and imported?

A.

file

B.

passphrase

C.

NGE

D.

nonexportable

Full Access
Question # 104

Which VPN technology supports a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

A.

FlexVPN

B.

DMVPN

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GET VPN

Full Access
Question # 105

Which two products are used to forecast capacity needs accurately in real time? (Choose two.)

A.

Cisco Secure Workload

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Workload Optimization Manager

D.

Cisco AppDynamics

E.

Cisco Cloudlock

Full Access
Question # 106

A university policy must allow open access to resources on the Internet for research, but internal workstations are exposed to malware. Which Cisco AMP feature allows the engineering team to determine whether a file is installed on a selected few workstations?

A.

file prevalence

B.

file discovery

C.

file conviction

D.

file manager

Full Access
Question # 107

Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?

A.

SDN controller and the network elements

B.

management console and the SDN controller

C.

management console and the cloud

D.

SDN controller and the cloud

Full Access
Question # 108

What is a benefit of a Cisco Secure Email Gateway Virtual as compared to a physical Secure Email Gateway?

A.

simplifies the distribution of software updates

B.

provides faster performance

C.

provides an automated setup process

D.

enables the allocation of additional resources

Full Access
Question # 109

Drag and drop the concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right

Full Access
Question # 110

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)

A.

NTLMSSP

B.

Kerberos

C.

CHAP

D.

TACACS+

E.

RADIUS

Full Access
Question # 111

What does endpoint isolation in Cisco AMP for Endpoints security protect from?

A.

an infection spreading across the network E

B.

a malware spreading across the user device

C.

an infection spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account

D.

a malware spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account

Full Access
Question # 112

How does Cisco Workload Optimization Manager help mitigate application performance issues?

A.

It deploys an AWS Lambda system

B.

It automates resource resizing

C.

It optimizes a flow path

D.

It sets up a workload forensic score

Full Access
Question # 113

Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices to gain access to

network resources?

A.

BYOD on boarding

B.

Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

C.

Client provisioning

D.

MAC authentication bypass

Full Access
Question # 114

Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

A.

File Analysis

B.

SafeSearch

C.

SSL Decryption

D.

Destination Lists

Full Access
Question # 115

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status. What is the problem according to this command output?

A.

hashing algorithm mismatch

B.

encryption algorithm mismatch

C.

authentication key mismatch

D.

interesting traffic was not applied

Full Access
Question # 116

An organization has DHCP servers set up to allocate IP addresses to clients on the LAN. What must be done to ensure the LAN switches prevent malicious DHCP traffic while also distributing IP addresses to the correct endpoints?

A.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and add entries in the DHCP snooping database.

B.

Configure DHCP snooping and set trusted interfaces for all client connections.

C.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and antispoofing ACLs in the DHCP snooping database.

D.

Configure DHCP snooping and set a trusted interface for the DHCP server.

Full Access
Question # 117

What is a description of microsegmentation?

A.

Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate

B.

Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery

C.

Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

D.

Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container

Full Access
Question # 118

Which two statements about a Cisco WSA configured in Transparent mode are true? (Choose two)

A.

It can handle explicit HTTP requests.

B.

It requires a PAC file for the client web browser.

C.

It requires a proxy for the client web browser.

D.

WCCP v2-enabled devices can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.

E.

Layer 4 switches can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.

Full Access
Question # 119

When network telemetry is implemented, what is important to be enabled across all network infrastructure devices to correlate different sources?

A.

CDP

B.

NTP

C.

syslog

D.

DNS

Full Access
Question # 120

v

Refer to the exhibit When configuring this access control rule in Cisco FMC, what happens with the traffic destined to the DMZjnside zone once the configuration is deployed?

A.

All traffic from any zone to the DMZ_inside zone will be permitted with no further inspection

B.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone regardless of if it's trusted or not

C.

All traffic from any zone will be allowed to the DMZ_inside zone only after inspection

D.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone unless it's already trusted

Full Access
Question # 121

On which part of the IT environment does DevSecOps focus?

A.

application development

B.

wireless network

C.

data center

D.

perimeter network

Full Access
Question # 122

A security administrator is designing an email protection solution for an onsite email server and must meet these requirements:

Remove malware from email before it reaches corporate premises

Drop emails with risky links automatically

Block access to newly infected sites with real-time URL analysis

Which solution must be used?

A.

Cisco Secure Email Cloud

B.

Cisco Security for Office 365

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

D.

Cisco Secure Email and Web Manager Cloud

Full Access
Question # 123

What is a benefit of flexible NetFlow records?

A.

They are used for security

B.

They are used for accounting

C.

They monitor a packet from Layer 2 to Layer 5

D.

They have customized traffic identification

Full Access
Question # 124

Which feature is leveraged by advanced antimalware capabilities to be an effective endpomt protection platform?

A.

big data

B.

storm centers

C.

sandboxing

D.

blocklisting

Full Access
Question # 125

An engineer needs to detect and quarantine a file named abc424400664 zip based on the MD5 signature of the file using the Outbreak Control list feature within Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints The configured detection method must work on files of unknown disposition Which Outbreak Control list must be configured to provide this?

A.

Blocked Application

B.

Simple Custom Detection

C.

Advanced Custom Detection

D.

Android Custom Detection

Full Access
Question # 126

What is a description of microsegmentation?

A.

Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery.

B.

Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate.

C.

Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container.

D.

Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

Full Access
Question # 127

Which Cisco ISE service checks the compliance of endpoints before allowing the endpoints to connect to

the network?

A.

posture

B.

profiler

C.

Cisco TrustSec

D.

Threat Centric NAC

Full Access
Question # 128

A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256

cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1. Which command achieves this goal?

A.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 myv3

C.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 andy

D.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 myv3

Full Access
Question # 129

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

Full Access
Question # 130

Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two)

A.

64-bit block size, 112-bit key length

B.

64-bit block size, 168-bit key length

C.

128-bit block size, 192-bit key length

D.

128-bit block size, 256-bit key length

E.

192-bit block size, 256-bit key length

Full Access
Question # 131

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites but other sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

A.

Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.

B.

IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.

C.

Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy.

D.

Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.

Full Access
Question # 132

Based on the NIST 800-145 guide, which cloud architecture may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of the organizations in the community, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises?

A.

hybrid cloud

B.

private cloud

C.

public cloud

D.

community cloud

Full Access
Question # 133

A hacker initiated a social engineering attack and stole username and passwords of some users within a company. Which product should be used as a solution to this problem?

A.

Cisco NGFW

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

D.

Cisco Duo

Full Access
Question # 134

What is the purpose of a NetFlow version 9 template record?

A.

It specifies the data format of NetFlow processes.

B.

It provides a standardized set of information about an IP flow.

C.

lt defines the format of data records.

D.

It serves as a unique identification number to distinguish individual data records

Full Access
Question # 135

What is a difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN?

A.

DMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, FlexVPN only uses IKEv1

B.

DMVPN uses only IKEv1 FlexVPN uses only IKEv2

C.

FlexVPN uses IKEv2, DMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2

D.

FlexVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, DMVPN uses only IKEv2

Full Access
Question # 136

An engineer is trying to decide between using L2TP or GRE over IPsec for their site-to-site VPN implementation. What must be un solution?

A.

L2TP is an IP packet encapsulation protocol, and GRE over IPsec is a tunneling protocol.

B.

L2TP uses TCP port 47 and GRE over IPsec uses UDP port 1701.

C.

GRE over IPsec adds its own header, and L2TP does not.

D.

GRE over IPsec cannot be used as a standalone protocol, and L2TP can.

Full Access
Question # 137

What is a functional difference between Cisco Secure Endpoint and Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client?

A.

Secure Endpoint authenticates users and provides segmentation, and the Umbrella Roaming Client allows only for VPN connectivity.

B.

Secure Endpoint stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and the Umbrella Roaming Client tracks only URL-based threats.

C.

The Umbrella Roaming Client authenticates users and provides segmentation, and Secure Endpoint allows only for VPN connectivity.

D.

The Umbrella Roaming client stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and Secure Endpoint tracks only URL-based threats.

Full Access
Question # 138

Which two functions does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution perform in trying to protect from phishing attacks? (Choose two.)

A.

blocks malicious websites and adds them to a block list

B.

does a real-time user web browsing behavior analysis

C.

provides a defense for on-premises email deployments

D.

uses a static algorithm to determine malicious

E.

determines if the email messages are malicious

Full Access
Question # 139

What is a difference between DMVPN and sVTI?

A.

DMVPN supports tunnel encryption, whereas sVTI does not.

B.

DMVPN supports dynamic tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.

C.

DMVPN supports static tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.

D.

DMVPN provides interoperability with other vendors, whereas sVTI does not.

Full Access
Question # 140

An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices The default management port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed What must be done to ensure that all devices can communicate together?

A.

Set the sftunnel to go through the Cisco FTD

B.

Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTD devices

C.

Set the sftunnel port to 8305.

D.

Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices

Full Access
Question # 141

Which Cisco security solution integrates with cloud applications like Dropbox and Office 365 while protecting data from being exfiltrated?

A.

Cisco Tajos

B.

Cisco Steaithwatch Cloud

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

Full Access
Question # 142

Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view

of activity?

A.

SNMP

B.

SMTP

C.

syslog

D.

model-driven telemetry

Full Access
Question # 143

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring this access control rule in Cisco FMC, what happens with the traffic destined to the DMZ_inside zone once the configuration is deployed?

A.

All traffic from any zone will be allowed to the DMZ_inside zone only after inspection.

B.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone regardless of if it's trusted or not.

C.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone unless it's already trusted.

D.

All traffic from any zone to the DMZ_inside zone will be permitted with no further inspection.

Full Access
Question # 144

In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?

A.

Smurf

B.

distributed denial of service

C.

cross-site scripting

D.

rootkit exploit

Full Access
Question # 145

Which Cisco cloud security software centrally manages policies on multiple platforms such as Cisco ASA, Cisco Firepower, Cisco Meraki, and AWS?

A.

Cisco Defense Orchestrator

B.

Cisco Configuration Professional

C.

Cisco Secureworks

D.

Cisco DNAC

Full Access
Question # 146

When a next-generation endpoint security solution is selected for a company, what are two key

deliverables that help justify the implementation? (Choose two.)

A.

signature-based endpoint protection on company endpoints

B.

macro-based protection to keep connected endpoints safe

C.

continuous monitoring of all files that are located on connected endpoints

D.

email integration to protect endpoints from malicious content that is located in email

E.

real-time feeds from global threat intelligence centers

Full Access
Question # 147

Which two global commands must the network administrator implement to limit the attack surface of an internet-facing Cisco router? (Choose two.)

A.

no service password-recovery

B.

no cdp run

C.

service tcp-keepalives-in

D.

no ip http server

E.

ip ssh version 2

Full Access
Question # 148

An organization wants to implement a cloud-delivered and SaaS-based solution to provide visibility and threat detection across the AWS network. The solution must be deployed without software agents and rely on AWS VPC flow logs instead. Which solution meets these requirements?

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

NetFlow collectors

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Full Access
Question # 149

Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two)

A.

The attack is fragmented into groups of 16 octets before transmission.

B.

The attack is fragmented into groups of 8 octets before transmission.

C.

Short synchronized bursts of traffic are used to disrupt TCP connections.

D.

Malformed packets are used to crash systems.

E.

Publicly accessible DNS servers are typically used to execute the attack.

Full Access
Question # 150

Which term describes when the Cisco Firepower downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Talos?

A.

consumption

B.

sharing

C.

analysis

D.

authoring

Full Access
Question # 151

An organization recently installed a Cisco WSA and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the organization to create a policy to control application specific activity. After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?

A.

Use security services to configure the traffic monitor, .

B.

Use URL categorization to prevent the application traffic.

C.

Use an access policy group to configure application control settings.

D.

Use web security reporting to validate engine functionality

Full Access
Question # 152

What are two benefits of Flexible NetFlow records? (Choose two)

A.

They allow the user to configure flow information to perform customized traffic identification

B.

They provide attack prevention by dropping the traffic

C.

They provide accounting and billing enhancements

D.

They converge multiple accounting technologies into one accounting mechanism

E.

They provide monitoring of a wider range of IP packet information from Layer 2 to 4

Full Access
Question # 153

Which Cisco network security device supports contextual awareness?

A.

Firepower

B.

CISCO ASA

C.

Cisco IOS

D.

ISE

Full Access
Question # 154

Which feature requires that network telemetry be enabled?

A.

per-interface stats

B.

SNMP trap notification

C.

Layer 2 device discovery

D.

central syslog system

Full Access
Question # 155

What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?

A.

integrity

B.

key exchange

C.

encryption

D.

authentication

Full Access
Question # 156

Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a software-defined network architecture about a specific security threat?

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

Full Access
Question # 157

For a given policy in Cisco Umbrella, how should a customer block websites based on a custom list?

A.

By adding the websites to a blocked type destination list

B.

By specifying blocked domains in the policy settings

C.

By adding the website IP addresses to the Cisco Umbrella blocklist

D.

By specifying the websites in a custom blocked category

Full Access
Question # 158

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

A.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

B.

Connect to ITSM platforms

C.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

D.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

E.

Third party reporting

Full Access
Question # 159

An organization wants to improve its cybersecurity processes and to add intelligence to its data The organization wants to utilize the most current intelligence data for URL filtering, reputations, and vulnerability information that can be integrated with the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA What must be done to accomplish these objectives?

A.

Create a Cisco pxGrid connection to NIST to import this information into the security products for policy use

B.

Create an automated download of the Internet Storm Center intelligence feed into the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA databases to tie to the dynamic access control policies.

C.

Download the threat intelligence feed from the IETF and import it into the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA databases

D.

Configure the integrations with Talos Intelligence to take advantage of the threat intelligence that it provides.

Full Access
Question # 160

What is the purpose of the Trusted Automated exchange cyber threat intelligence industry standard?

A.

public collection of threat intelligence feeds

B.

threat intelligence sharing organization

C.

language used to represent security information

D.

service used to exchange security information

Full Access
Question # 161

Which cryptographic process provides origin confidentiality, integrity, and origin authentication for packets?

A.

IKEv1

B.

AH

C.

ESP

D.

IKEv2

Full Access
Question # 162

Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDynamics to monitor an EC2 instance in Amazon Web Services.

Full Access
Question # 163

What are two characteristics of Cisco Catalyst Center APIs? (Choose two.)

A.

Postman is required to utilize Cisco Catalyst Center API calls.

B.

They are Cisco proprietary.

C.

They do not support Python scripts.

D.

They view the overall health of the network.

E.

They quickly provision new devices.

Full Access
Question # 164

An engineer configures new features within the Cisco Umbrella dashboard and wants to identify and proxy traffic that is categorized as risky domains and may contain safe and malicious content. Which action accomplishes these objectives?

A.

Configure URL filtering within Cisco Umbrella to track the URLs and proxy the requests for those categories and below.

B.

Configure intelligent proxy within Cisco Umbrella to intercept and proxy the requests for only those categories.

C.

Upload the threat intelligence database to Cisco Umbrella for the most current information on reputations and to have the destination lists block them.

D.

Create a new site within Cisco Umbrella to block requests from those categories so they can be sent to the proxy device.

Full Access
Question # 165

An engineer is adding a Cisco DUO solution to the current TACACS+ deployment using Cisco ISE. The engineer wants to authenticate users using their account when they log into network devices. Which action accomplishes this task?

A.

Configure Cisco DUO with the external Active Directory connector and tie it to the policy set within Cisco ISE.

B.

Install and configure the Cisco DUO Authentication Proxy and configure the identity source sequence within Cisco ISE

C.

Create an identity policy within Cisco ISE to send all authentication requests to Cisco DUO.

D.

Modify the current policy with the condition MFASourceSequence DUO=true in the authorization conditions within Cisco ISE

Full Access
Question # 166

What are two recommended approaches to stop DNS tunneling for data exfiltration and command and control call backs? (Choose two.)

A.

Use intrusion prevention system.

B.

Block all TXT DNS records.

C.

Enforce security over port 53.

D.

Use next generation firewalls.

E.

Use Cisco Umbrella.

Full Access
Question # 167

Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two)

A.

Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.

B.

Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.

C.

Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.

D.

Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.

E.

Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.

Full Access
Question # 168

An administrator is establishing a new site-to-site VPN connection on a Cisco IOS router. The organization

needs to ensure that the ISAKMP key on the hub is used only for terminating traffic from the IP address of

172.19.20.24. Which command on the hub will allow the administrator to accomplish this?

A.

crypto ca identity 172.19.20.24

B.

crypto isakmp key Cisco0123456789 172.19.20.24

C.

crypto enrollment peer address 172.19.20.24

D.

crypto isakmp identity address 172.19.20.24

Full Access
Question # 169

What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?

A.

intent-based APIs

B.

automation adapters

C.

domain integration

D.

application adapters

Full Access
Question # 170

Which suspicious pattern enables the Cisco Tetration platform to learn the normal behavior of users?

A.

file access from a different user

B.

interesting file access

C.

user login suspicious behavior

D.

privilege escalation

Full Access
Question # 171

What is the term for having information about threats and threat actors that helps mitigate harmful events that would otherwise compromise networks or systems?

A.

trusted automated exchange

B.

Indicators of Compromise

C.

The Exploit Database

D.

threat intelligence

Full Access
Question # 172

Which solution for remote workers enables protection, detection, and response on the endpoint against known and unknown threats?

A.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Duo

Full Access
Question # 173

Which license is required for Cisco Security Intelligence to work on the Cisco Next Generation Intrusion

Prevention System?

A.

control

B.

malware

C.

URL filtering

D.

protect

Full Access
Question # 174

Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture policy requirement is not met?

A.

compliant

B.

unknown

C.

authorized

D.

noncompliant

Full Access
Question # 175

An engineer is adding a Cisco router to an existing environment. NTP authentication is configured on all devices in the environment with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Clsc427128380. There are two routers on the network that are configured as NTP servers for redundancy, 192.168.1.110 and 192.168.1.111. 192.168.1.110 is configured as the authoritative time source. What command must be configured on the new router to use 192.168.1.110 as its primary time source without the new router attempting to offer time to existing devices?

A.

ntp server 192.168.1.110 primary key 1

B.

ntp peer 192.168.1.110 prefer key 1

C.

ntp server 192.168.1.110 key 1 prefer

D.

ntp peer 192.168.1.110 key 1 primary

Full Access
Question # 176

An administrator is configuring a DHCP server to better secure their environment. They need to be able to ratelimit the traffic and ensure that legitimate requests are not dropped. How would this be accomplished?

A.

Set a trusted interface for the DHCP server

B.

Set the DHCP snooping bit to 1

C.

Add entries in the DHCP snooping database

D.

Enable ARP inspection for the required VLAN

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Question # 177

Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System? (Choose two)

A.

packet decoder

B.

SIP

C.

modbus

D.

inline normalization

E.

SSL

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Question # 178

Which statement describes a serverless application?

A.

The application delivery controller in front of the server farm designates on which server the application runs each time.

B.

The application runs from an ephemeral, event-triggered, and stateless container that is fully managed by a cloud provider.

C.

The application is installed on network equipment and not on physical servers.

D.

The application runs from a containerized environment that is managed by Kubernetes or Docker Swarm.

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Question # 179

Which category includes DoS Attacks?

A.

Virus attacks

B.

Trojan attacks

C.

Flood attacks

D.

Phishing attacks

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Question # 180

What are two advantages of using Cisco Any connect over DMVPN? (Choose two)

A.

It provides spoke-to-spoke communications without traversing the hub

B.

It allows different routing protocols to work over the tunnel

C.

It allows customization of access policies based on user identity

D.

It allows multiple sites to connect to the data center

E.

It enables VPN access for individual users from their machines

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Question # 181

What is the purpose of joining Cisco WSAs to an appliance group?

A.

All WSAs in the group can view file analysis results.

B.

The group supports improved redundancy

C.

It supports cluster operations to expedite the malware analysis process.

D.

It simplifies the task of patching multiple appliances.

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Question # 182

An engineer needs to configure a Cisco Secure Email Gateway (SEG) to prompt users to enter multiple forms of identification before gaining access to the SEG. The SEG must also join a cluster using the preshared key of cisc421555367. What steps must be taken to support this?

A.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server, and then join the cluster via the SEG GUI.

B.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server, and then join the cluster via the SEG CLI.

C.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server, and then join the cluster via the SEG CLI

D.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server, and then join the cluster via the SEG GUI.

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Question # 183

Which command is used to log all events to a destination colector 209.165.201.107?

A.

CiscoASA(config-pmap-c)#flow-export event-type flow-update destination 209.165.201.10

B.

CiscoASA(config-cmap)# flow-export event-type all destination 209.165.201.

C.

CiscoASA(config-pmap-c)#flow-export event-type all destination 209.165.201.10

D.

CiscoASA(config-cmap)#flow-export event-type flow-update destination 209.165.201.10

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Question # 184

What is an attribute of Cisco Talos?

A.

Introduction of attributes that use objects and narrative relations

B.

Fast and intelligent responses based on threat data

C.

Cyber threat intelligence interchange and maintenance

D.

Cyber threats posing as authorized users and devices

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Question # 185

Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?

A.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 privasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv des ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 noauthasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

C.

asa-host(config)#snmpserver group myv3 v3 noauthasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv 3des ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

D.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 privasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

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Question # 186

Why is it important for the organization to have an endpoint patching strategy?

A.

so the organization can identify endpoint vulnerabilities

B.

so the internal PSIRT organization is aware of the latest bugs

C.

so the network administrator is notified when an existing bug is encountered

D.

so the latest security fixes are installed on the endpoints

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Question # 187

Refer to the exhibit. All servers are in the same VLAN/Subnet. DNS Server-1 and DNS Server-2 must communicate with each other, and all servers must communicate with default gateway multilayer switch. Which type of private VLAN ports should be configured to prevent communication between DNS servers and the file server?

A.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as community port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as isolated port, and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4 as promiscuous ports.

B.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as community port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as promiscuous port, Gigabit Ethernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4 as isolated ports C. Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as promiscuous port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as isolated port and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GrgabitEthernet0/4 as community ports

C.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as promiscuous port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as community port, and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GrgabitEthernet0/4 as isolated ports.

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Question # 188

What are two things to consider when using PAC files with the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A.

If the WSA host port is changed, the default port redirects web traffic to the correct port automatically.

B.

PAC files use if-else statements to determine whether to use a proxy or a direct connection for traffic between the PC and the host.

C.

The WSA hosts PAC files on port 9001 by default.

D.

The WSA hosts PAC files on port 6001 by default.

E.

By default, they direct traffic through a proxy when the PC and the host are on the same subnet.

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Question # 189

A network engineer is trying to figure out whether FlexVPN or DMVPN would fit better in their environment.

They have a requirement for more stringent security multiple security associations for the connections, more efficient VPN establishment as well consuming less bandwidth. Which solution would be best for this and why?

A.

DMVPN because it supports IKEv2 and FlexVPN does not

B.

FlexVPN because it supports IKEv2 and DMVPN does not

C.

FlexVPN because it uses multiple SAs and DMVPN does not

D.

DMVPN because it uses multiple SAs and FlexVPN does not

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Question # 190

An organization must add new firewalls to its infrastructure and wants to use Cisco ASA or Cisco FTD.

The chosen firewalls must provide methods of blocking traffic that include offering the user the option to bypass the block for certain sites after displaying a warning page and to reset the connection. Which solution should the organization choose?

A.

Cisco FTD because it supports system rate level traffic blocking, whereas Cisco ASA does not

B.

Cisco ASA because it allows for interactive blocking and blocking with reset to be configured via the GUI, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

C.

Cisco FTD because it enables interactive blocking and blocking with reset natively, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco ASA because it has an additional module that can be installed to provide multiple blocking capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

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Question # 191

Which baseline form of telemetry is recommended for network infrastructure devices?

A.

SDNS

B.

NetFlow

C.

passive taps

D.

SNMP

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Question # 192

Which RADIUS attribute can you use to filter MAB requests in an 802.1 x deployment?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

6

D.

31

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Question # 193

Which type of algorithm provides the highest level of protection against brute-force attacks?

A.

PFS

B.

HMAC

C.

MD5

D.

SHA

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Question # 194

What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

A.

HTTPS file upload site

B.

Microsoft Windows network shares

C.

SQL database injections

D.

encrypted SMTP

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Question # 195

An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a

recipient address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?

A.

SAT

B.

BAT

C.

HAT

D.

RAT

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Question # 196

Which two methods are available in Cisco Secure Web Appliance to process client requests when configured in Transparent mode? (Choose two.)

A.

WCCP

B.

Browser settings

C.

WPAD

D.

PAC files

E.

PBR

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Question # 197

A mall provides security services to customers with a shared appliance. The mall wants separation of

management on the shared appliance. Which ASA deployment mode meets these needs?

A.

routed mode

B.

transparent mode

C.

multiple context mode

D.

multiple zone mode

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Question # 198

What are two benefits of workload security? (Choose two.)

A.

Tracked application security

B.

Automated patching

C.

Reduced attack surface

D.

Scalable security policies

E.

Workload modeling

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Question # 199

What is the Cisco API-based broker that helps reduce compromises, application risks, and data breaches in an environment that is not on-premise?

A.

Cisco Cloudlock

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco AMP

D.

Cisco App Dynamics

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Question # 200

What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?

A.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users.

B.

It alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic.

C.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users.

D.

It provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOS.

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Question # 201

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

A.

privilege level for an authorized user to this router

B.

access list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router

C.

interval in seconds between SNMPv3 authentication attempts

D.

number of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out

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Question # 202

Drag and drop the suspicious patterns for the Cisco Tetration platform from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

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Question # 203

What limits communication between applications or containers on the same node?

A.

microsegmentation

B.

container orchestration

C.

microservicing

D.

Software-Defined Access

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Question # 204

An organization is implementing AAA for their users. They need to ensure that authorization is verified for every command that is being entered by the network administrator. Which protocol must be configured in order to provide this capability?

A.

EAPOL

B.

SSH

C.

RADIUS

D.

TACACS+

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Question # 205

What does Cisco AMP for Endpoints use to help an organization detect different families of malware?

A.

Ethos Engine to perform fuzzy fingerprinting

B.

Tetra Engine to detect malware when me endpoint is connected to the cloud

C.

Clam AV Engine to perform email scanning

D.

Spero Engine with machine learning to perform dynamic analysis

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Question # 206

What is the purpose of the certificate signing request when adding a new certificate for a server?

A.

It is the password for the certificate that is needed to install it with.

B.

It provides the server information so a certificate can be created and signed

C.

It provides the certificate client information so the server can authenticate against it when installing

D.

It is the certificate that will be loaded onto the server

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